Christianity as History Theft

[firstfloor]

Some while ago I watched a science fiction movie called Primer. It had a fantastically complicated plot and a few people tried to sketch out the timeline. It is here if you are interested.
http://unrealitymag.com/index.php/20...ne-for-primer/

[Bill the Cat]

This should be in the poop deck.

[Paprika]

It was essentially a lament, not intended to be about the future.

This is conclusive that you haven't read the psalm and are out to troll.

[KingsGambit]

If this is a genuine question, which I highly doubt, I would recommend doing some reading on NT appropriation of OT passages.

[firstfloor]

If this is a genuine question, which I highly doubt, I would recommend doing some reading on NT appropriation of OT passages.

http://www.bible-researcher.com/nicole.html

[shunyadragon]

http://www.bible-researcher.com/nicole.html

Actually an enquiry of the Psalm itself in the context of whole text around it is necessary.

[shunyadragon]

This is conclusive that you haven't read the psalm and are out to troll.

Accusations of troll are unwarranted. I will cite the context of the Psalms in the whole text with commentary of Hebrew scholars. I do not believe it was intended in the Jewish context and translation in the manner Christians interpreted it.

Christians generally claim verses 1 through 19 refer to Christian prophesy for Christ, in part for the famous lament by Christ on the cross, Psalms 22-1 "My God, my God, why have you forsaken me?'

I contend that you have to take the whole chapter Psalm 22 in the same context, and compare the Jewish and Christian understanding of the whole chapter..

[firstfloor]

This is conclusive that you haven't read the psalm and are out to troll.

How is it that Psalm 22 has no meaning until it reaches Jesus on the cross? Do you see the problem?

[Paprika]

How is it that Psalm 22 has no meaning until it reaches Jesus on the cross?

Who has claimed that? Certainly not me.

[Epoetker]

How is it that Psalm 22 has no meaning until it reaches Jesus on the cross? Do you see the problem?

What, exactly, is the problem with an open-ended prophecy being closed? Does gravity have no meaning until Isaac Newton diagrammed it?

[firstfloor]

Actually an enquiry of the Psalm itself in the context of whole text around it is necessary.

Thanks. I am having a read of this paper:
http://www.bibleinterp.com/PDFs/Psalm_22.pdfno evidence of Psalm 22 being used in a Jewish messianic context

[Spartacus]

Thanks. I am having a read of this paper:
http://www.bibleinterp.com/PDFs/Psalm_22.pdfno evidence of Psalm 22 being used in a Jewish messianic context

Are you deliberately missing the point? It's not about a messiah, nor do Christians believe that it must be. It's about the glory of God, and God's servant declaring his trust in Him even in the midst of suffering. The point is not that it was intended by the author as prophecy, but that Christ, on the cross, declares that his trust in God is in fact unshaken.

[firstfloor]

Who has claimed that? Certainly not me.

Actually, that is what is claimed by prophesy. If it is about the future, actually, rather than just a wish about the future (anyone can write hopeful prose or poetry), then it has no meaning in the present. It is a revelation of events out of context. Alternately, if it (Psalm 22 in this case) has meaning in its own time then that is where its true meaning is, even if future events resemble the circumstances in some way. Typically, a piece of poetry, because it tends to be non-specific, without named people, dates and places, can be descriptive of all manner of actual situations.

[firstfloor]

Are you deliberately missing the point? It's not about a messiah, nor do Christians believe that it must be. It's about the glory of God, and God's servant declaring his trust in Him even in the midst of suffering. The point is not that it was intended by the author as prophecy, but that Christ, on the cross, declares that his trust in God is in fact unshaken.

[Paprika]

If it is about the future, actually, rather than just a wish about the future (anyone can write hopeful prose or poetry), then it has no meaning in the present. It is a revelation of events out of context. Alternately, if it (Psalm 22 in this case) has meaning in its own time then that is where its true meaning is, even if future events resemble the circumstances in some way.

A most interesting dichotomy you've set up there. Care to support it using scholarly analysis of how the Jews regarded prophecy?