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Scrawly
01-20-2014, 04:35 PM
Galatians 3:28 states:

"There is neither Jew nor Greek, there is neither slave nor free, there is no male and female, for you are all one in Christ Jesus."

I am just curious if I would be correct in asserting that the couplets Jew/Greek and slave/free are not exactly like male/female.

The latter couplet male/female is linked by the conjunction kai ("and") which indicates the complimentarity of the gender differences whereas the former distinctions - Jew/Greek, slave/free - are utterly eradicated in Christ.

Would this be an accurate reading?

robrecht
01-20-2014, 05:21 PM
It may just be avoidance of repeatedly using the same construction. It was considered good style in Greek to use some variation of expression.

Scrawly
01-20-2014, 05:46 PM
It may just be avoidance of repeatedly using the same construction. It was considered good style in Greek to use some variation of expression.

OK thanks, and do you think the verse is dissuading one from highlighting one's ethnicity, socio-economic status, and gender as significant in Christ?

robrecht
01-20-2014, 06:01 PM
Don't know. Stylistic could be either intentional or by force of habit.

RonC
01-22-2014, 10:41 AM
οὐκ ἔνι Ἰουδαῖος οὐδὲ Ἕλλην οὐκ ἔνι δοῦλος οὐδὲ ἐλεύθερος οὐκ ἔνι ἄρσεν καὶ θῆλυ πάντες γὰρ ὑμεῖς εἷς ἐστε ἐν Χριστῷ Ἰησοῦ

καὶ ἐποίησεν ὁ θεὸς τὸν ἄνθρωπον κατ᾽ εἰκόνα θεοῦ ἐποίησεν αὐτόν ἄρσεν καὶ θῆλυ ἐποίησεν αὐτούς (Gen 1:27)
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The writer is using the same terms used in the LXX to render Gen 1:27... it is a call to the listener (reader) to understand this eradication of distinctions thru Christ is not temporal or for that matter limited in any way, but rather a revelation of eternal truth... so the writer takes us to the very teachings of the creation... Genesis 1

RonC