A problem with preterism?

[thebrainkid]

I was thinking about preterism the other day and was reading Matt. 24:1-2 ("Jesus left the temple and was walking away when his disciples came up to him to call his attention to its buildings. 'Do you see all these things?' he asked. 'I tell you the truth, not one stone here will be left on another; every one will be thrown down.' ")
Now, as far as I know, preterists claim that, since Jesus is referring to the temple existing at that time, this prophecy must have been fulfilled in the destruction of the Temple in AD 70. But, if my memory serves me correctly, the West Wall is a still existing remnant of that temple.
So, how can this prophecy refer to the destruction of the Jewish temple in AD 70 when there is such an obvious example of 'some stones being left on another'?

[dizzle]

Hyperbole. And the wall is not the Temple proper which is what the disciples were pointing to. Futher, unless osme alleged future temple is to be made of the exact same stones that the former was, then the prophecy is a false one, since Jesus said THESE stones and pointed to those stones back then. One cannot get hyperliteral and say it was not fulfilled due to the wall thingy and then get less literal and ignore the reference to those very stones. By either way of looking at the passage, futurism loses.

[GhostontheNet]

Also, some question whether the wailing wall is legit http://www.askelm.com/temple/t000701.htm . And indeed, according to my maps of the temple, if the wailing wall is indeed what traditions say it is, it's merely part of the outer court.

[thebrainkid]

so,

1) West Wall is not really part of the temple.
2)Jesus is using hyperbole in the passage.

Okay guys, thanks. That cleared that one up well.

[dizzle]

Cool. That was easy.