skepticbud
March 28th 2003, 06:36 AM
The Israelites are told by "god" to war against the Midianites in Numbers 31. Verse 16 gives the reason:
"And Moses said to them, "Have you spared all the women? Behold, these caused the sons of Israel, through the counsel of Balaam, to trespass against the LORD in the matter of Peor, so the plague was among the congregation of the LORD." (NASB)
But keep reading the passage and discover the great inconsistency:
"Now therefore, kill every male among the little ones, and kill every woman who has known man intimately. But all the girls who have not known man intimately, spare for yourselves." (vs. 17-18, NASB)
Did you notice it? Moses acknowledges that "the women of Midian" had caused the sons of Israel to sin against god. This is his motivation for sending them out to kill the Midianites.
But then, when he discovers that his army only did a half-fast job, he says to kill off the rest of the people, sparing the little girls only.
Four questions:
1 - If the women are to be blamed, why were their husbands killed?
2 - If the women are to be blamed, why were their little boys killed? (2b: why kill the little boys, but not the little girls? What exact difference is there in worth or guilt between little boys and little girls?)
3 - If the women are to be blamed, why weren't they ALL killed?
4 - Moses blames Midianite women for the sons of Israel falling into sin, and uses this as justification to go kill them. Suppose I kill a prostitute, because I was lured to purchase her services while talking with her? Doesn't the example of Moses prove that it is justified to blame other people at least to some degree for our choice to follow them into sin? If you say it is wrong to blame other people for our choice to follow them into sins, how do you justify Moses, who blamed these women for luring male Israelites to sin against god, as if the male Israelites were total wimps, without any freewill, resolve or spine?
"And Moses said to them, "Have you spared all the women? Behold, these caused the sons of Israel, through the counsel of Balaam, to trespass against the LORD in the matter of Peor, so the plague was among the congregation of the LORD." (NASB)
But keep reading the passage and discover the great inconsistency:
"Now therefore, kill every male among the little ones, and kill every woman who has known man intimately. But all the girls who have not known man intimately, spare for yourselves." (vs. 17-18, NASB)
Did you notice it? Moses acknowledges that "the women of Midian" had caused the sons of Israel to sin against god. This is his motivation for sending them out to kill the Midianites.
But then, when he discovers that his army only did a half-fast job, he says to kill off the rest of the people, sparing the little girls only.
Four questions:
1 - If the women are to be blamed, why were their husbands killed?
2 - If the women are to be blamed, why were their little boys killed? (2b: why kill the little boys, but not the little girls? What exact difference is there in worth or guilt between little boys and little girls?)
3 - If the women are to be blamed, why weren't they ALL killed?
4 - Moses blames Midianite women for the sons of Israel falling into sin, and uses this as justification to go kill them. Suppose I kill a prostitute, because I was lured to purchase her services while talking with her? Doesn't the example of Moses prove that it is justified to blame other people at least to some degree for our choice to follow them into sin? If you say it is wrong to blame other people for our choice to follow them into sins, how do you justify Moses, who blamed these women for luring male Israelites to sin against god, as if the male Israelites were total wimps, without any freewill, resolve or spine?