Exd. 21:22 (and its relevance to abortion)

[Pate]

If men strive, and hurt a woman with child, so that her fruit depart [from her], and yet no mischief follow: he shall be surely punished, according as the woman's husband will lay upon him; and he shall pay as the judges [determine].


I was looking up the original hebrew text for this passage from the Blue Letter Bible ( http://www.blueletterbible.org/tmp_dir/c/1090690694-267.html#22 ) and it gives the word 'enowsh for "men". Now, apparently this word can mean also "a person" so that the implication is not necessarily that the woman was just an unlucky "outsider" who happened to get on the way of the men involved in the fight, but rather she could herself be participating in the fight. If this so, it would be an important point to make in discussions concerning the alleged bibilical justification for abortion, because it would allow one to argue that the reason why the damage done to the woman was punished more strictly than the damage done to the fetus, had nothing to do with the value of fetus vs. an adult, but rather it's the fact that the damage done to the fetus was unintentional (the opponent tried to hurt the woman, not her baby inside her).

But is it even correct that the word that's used in the original text is 'enowsh? I'm having an online discussion about this and one of the paricipants said that there must be a mistake in the BLB's link, because the word that's used in the original text is not 'enowsh, but rather it's the plural form of iish, which apparently would make it clear that the participants in the fight were men, and consequently one could argue that the damage that was done to the woman was just as unintentional as the damage done to the fetus.

So, can anyone help me with this?

[JohnStevenson]

The passage in question is not entirely clear to us whether or not the miscarriage (literally, the "coming out") results in the death of the child or only in some "injury." The next verse would seem to indicate that if a death occurs, then the offender is to be put to death: But if there is any further injury, then you shall appoint as a penalty life for life (verse 23).

[Pate]

John,

Thanks for your response. I was aware of the point that you brought up.

Are you able to help with that issue of whether the word 'enowsh really is there in the original text, or is it just a mistake in Strong's concordance (on which the BLB is based)? Like I said, one of the persons who discussed this passage claimed that it probably is a mistake, as far as he knew his Hebrew, but he wasn't absolutely sure.

If the word 'enowsh were there in the original, that could give us an additional argument against the alleged biblical justification for valuing a fetus as less than fully human (as I tried to explain in my previous post).

[John Reece]

If men strive, and hurt a woman with child, so that her fruit depart [from her], and yet no mischief follow: he shall be surely punished, according as the woman's husband will lay upon him; and he shall pay as the judges [determine].


I was looking up the original hebrew text for this passage from the Blue Letter Bible ( http://www.blueletterbible.org/tmp_dir/c/1090690694-267.html#22 ) and it gives the word 'enowsh for "men". Now, apparently this word can mean also "a person" so that the implication is not necessarily that the woman was just an unlucky "outsider" who happened to get on the way of the men involved in the fight, but rather she could herself be participating in the fight. If this so, it would be an important point to make in discussions concerning the alleged bibilical justification for abortion, because it would allow one to argue that the reason why the damage done to the woman was punished more strictly than the damage done to the fetus, had nothing to do with the value of fetus vs. an adult, but rather it's the fact that the damage done to the fetus was unintentional (the opponent tried to hurt the woman, not her baby inside her).

But is it even correct that the word that's used in the original text is 'enowsh? I'm having an online discussion about this and one of the paricipants said that there must be a mistake in the BLB's link, because the word that's used in the original text is not 'enowsh, but rather it's the plural form of iish, which apparently would make it clear that the participants in the fight were men, and consequently one could argue that the damage that was done to the woman was just as unintentional as the damage done to the fetus.

So, can anyone help me with this?

Hi Pate,

I never learned transliteration, and I would not recognize 'enowsh as representing any Hebrew word, without being informed of the verse in which to look for the Hebrew word it is supposed to represent.

Whoever said the word rendered "men" in Exodus 21:22 is the plural of iish is onto something, although I don't know where that person got the extra i at the beginning of the transliteration - although, knowing the context, it's clear enough what the transliteration is meant to represent.

Exodus 21

22 "When men ()n$YM = plural of )Y$) strive together and hit a pregnant woman, so that her children come out, but there is no harm, the one who hit her shall surely be fined, as the woman's husband shall impose on him, and he shall pay as the judges determine. (ESV)

In certain contexts, )Y$ can be rightly rendered "person"; however, I'm not persuaded that this is such a context (although some mainline English versions take it that way - see below).

The primary sense of )Y$ is "man" in contrast to or in opposition to "woman". It is rendered in the LXX (Septuagint = original translation of the Hebrew Bible into Greek) by andreV = plural of anhr, the primary sense of which is an adult male as distinct from a female or a child. It's true that anhr can also mean "person", but only in contexts where it is clear that the primary sense is not necessarily what is meant.

The New Jerusalem Bible and the New Revised Standard Version render )n$YM "people" in Exodus 21:22.

The Revised English Bible has "When, in the course of a brawl, a man knocks against a pregnant woman so that she suffers a miscarriage but suffers no further injury, then the offender must pay whatever fine the woman's husband demands after assessment."

Let me know if I may be of further service to you.

Blessings,

John

[mikeledo]

A phrase in the Bible that refers to abortion? How about Numbers, chapter 5. A woman becomes with child from a man other than her husband. It would seem no one wants this bastard child. The priest then gives the woman some bitters which causes her to miscarriage, or murder the fetus.

Numbers 5:29-30 claims this procedure of murdering the fetus by the priest is "the law of jealousies" and implies this is what God wants in all cases.

[Pitiricus]

A phrase in the Bible that refers to abortion? How about Numbers, chapter 5. A woman becomes with child from a man other than her husband. It would seem no one wants this bastard child. The priest then gives the woman some bitters which causes her to miscarriage, or murder the fetus.

Numbers 5:29-30 claims this procedure of murdering the fetus by the priest is "the law of jealousies" and implies this is what God wants in all cases.
The Hebrew word for soul, neshama comes from the verb linshom, to breath... Until the fetus hasn't breathed through the nose, it isn't a soul, a human being...

Which explains why in the Jewish tradition the fetus isn't considered a human being until born (very strictly defined) which is when it first breathes through the nose...