The commentaries by Betz, Das, Lightfoot and Burton speak of the use of 'we' as representing Jewish Christians as a whole group. Nothing i have read even considers a notable difference from envisioning Paul's discussion as only including Paul and Cephas. Is there anything in the Greek to say that the first person plural should indicate anything more than Paul and Cephas?
I am proposing that the 'we' only described Paul and Cephas.
I am proposing that the 'we' only described Paul and Cephas.
Comment