'Maranatha'

[AVmetro]

1Co 16:22 - "If any man love not the Lord Jesus Christ, let him be Anathema Maranatha." KJV

Robert Morey in his book Trinity: Evidence and Issues states:

While the English has only one word "maranatha," the Greek actually has two: the Aramaic title "mare" [....] and the verb "to come," both transliterated from Aramaic into Greek. It means "Our Lord, come!" This translation has been verified by some of the Aramaic Dead Sea Scrolls found in Cave 4.
As R.T. France points out, it is clearly a pre-Pauline act of worship to Jesus in which the saints prayed to Him for His swift return. The early Palestinian Jewish Christians used it as a greeting to each other. It was later used by the Chruch as part of the communion service. [*224]

*Footnote: Christ the Lord, 30

Anyone have any input to offer regarding the above? What other evidence is there and what possible objections do you forsee?

-Thanks and God bless-

[JohnStevenson]

My understanding is that the verb can be taken either as an imperative or as an indicative. Thus it can say, "Our Lord, come!" or it can say, "Our Lord has come." Both are equally true and both would fit the context of 1 Corinthians 16:22.

[AVmetro]

Today @ 10:34 PM post located here (http://www.theologyweb.com/forum/showthread.php?s=&postid=72389#post72389)
JohnStevenson:

My understanding is that the verb can be taken either as an imperative or as an indicative. Thus it can say, "Our Lord, come!" or it can say, "Our Lord has come." Both are equally true and both would fit the context of 1 Corinthians 16:22.

Thanks, JS. By the way, welcome to Theology Web.