New covenant with who?

[Maxell]

http://www.messiahtruth.com/newcov.html

1) The first verse of the prophecy: "Behold, the days come, saith the LORD, that I will make a new covenant with the house of Israel, and with the house of Judah:" Was the House of Israel present at the time of Jesus’ death? No, they most certainly were not. They’d been exiled hundreds of years previously, and had not returned. The exact location of those tribes is still lost to us. Yet this verse signifies that the two kingdoms will be reunited. Are gentiles even mentioned or hinted at as being involved in this scenario?

So. How could new covenant was created times of Jesus, because there was no House of Israel present?

[barryrob]

http://www.messiahtruth.com/newcov.html

1) The first verse of the prophecy: "Behold, the days come, saith the LORD, that I will make a new covenant with the house of Israel, and with the house of Judah:" Was the House of Israel present at the time of Jesus’ death? No, they most certainly were not. They’d been exiled hundreds of years previously, and had not returned. The exact location of those tribes is still lost to us. Yet this verse signifies that the two kingdoms will be reunited. Are gentiles even mentioned or hinted at as being involved in this scenario?

So. How could new covenant was created times of Jesus, because there was no House of Israel present?
Have a look here and see.

http://www.theologyweb.com/forum/showthread.php?t=38377

Barryrob

[Starkman]

http://www.messiahtruth.com/newcov.html

1) The first verse of the prophecy: "Behold, the days come, saith the LORD, that I will make a new covenant with the house of Israel, and with the house of Judah:" Was the House of Israel present at the time of Jesus’ death? No, they most certainly were not. They’d been exiled hundreds of years previously, and had not returned. The exact location of those tribes is still lost to us. Yet this verse signifies that the two kingdoms will be reunited. Are gentiles even mentioned or hinted at as being involved in this scenario?

So. How could new covenant was created times of Jesus, because there was no House of Israel present?Personally, I am of the opinion that the 10 tribes were always known by God, never lost and are found in the bulk of western European nations and America, the majority of the Christian nations, by the way. (No, I am not an Armstrong British Israelite proponent.)

Through Hosea, God told the northern tribes that they would become not His people, have no mercy, and then, in that predicament, become His people. I see no justification for moving those promises outside of their intended audience (the northern tribes) and into the church without making the connection between the church and the tribes of old. The two are very much one in the same. The reason is because God kept His promise to the northern tribes, that they would be shown mercy and would become His people.

In a nut shell, the ten tribes become the western European nations who become the great Christian nations of old and of today. All the tribes are well known to God as to their whereabours. This isn't some mystical or white-supremacy issue. It's simply God keeping His promises. That's all.

Starkman