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Revolg
February 1st 2003, 05:52 PM
Should it be:

1. In the name of the Father, and of the Son, and the Holy Spirit as commanded by Jesus in His name?

Or

2. In Jesus's name as "used" in the New Testament?
Hitch
February 1st 2003, 05:56 PM
With water.
Xmansmommy
February 2nd 2003, 01:35 AM
1Co:12:13: For by one Spirit are we all baptized into one body, whether we be Jews or Gentiles, whether we be bond or free; and have been all made to drink into one Spirit.
Gavin
February 3rd 2003, 12:28 AM
Should it be:

1. In the name of the Father, and of the Son, and the Holy Spirit as commanded by Jesus in His name?

Or

2. In Jesus's name as "used" in the New Testament?
I am not sure what you mean, Revolg.

Maybe it would help if you cite the passages you were referring to.
Rubia Warren
February 3rd 2003, 09:43 AM
Revolg:
Should it be:

1. In the name of the Father, and of the Son, and the Holy Spirit as commanded by Jesus in His name?

Or

2. In Jesus's name as "used" in the New Testament?
Matt. 28:19 says (I'm going from memory, bear with me!) basically, "go ye therefore unto all nations, baptizing them in the name of the father, and of the son, and of the holy ghost...."

I've been wondering for a while now, why did they not do that? Why did they go and mention Jesus' name in the baptism? Were they disobedient?

Oops! I'm sorry! That's TEACHING all nations, baptizing them in the name of the Father, and of the Son, and of the Holy Ghost.
Hmmmm...... I wonder why there is no account of them doing it that way. Seems like such an easy, cut and dry task. *shrugs*
Rubia Warren
February 3rd 2003, 09:47 AM
*wink-wink* Okay, I bit the bait. :p
Pilgrim
February 3rd 2003, 12:12 PM
And you did it so well. It seems as if the second option was a bit prejudiced to begin with eh?
Rubia Warren
February 3rd 2003, 12:21 PM
prejudiced in that Jesus told them to do it the name of the father, son, and holy ghost, but they seemed to do it differently? I was making an observation, and wondering. If that is prejudiced, then, well ,okay. :huh:
Rubia Warren
February 3rd 2003, 12:38 PM
:argh: OOPS! Sorry about that,Pilgrim! After thinking about it for a minute, I see what you were saying! LOL (Ya hafta remember... I'm a blondie ;) ) LOL
Revolg
February 3rd 2003, 09:10 PM
Gavin:

I am not sure what you mean, Revolg.

Maybe it would help if you cite the passages you were referring to.

For example,

Acts 2:38 compared to Matthew 28:19

I come from the UPC remember so I still hang on to old beliefs. Do you still believe it's done by Matthew 28:19 or Acts 2:38?
Rubia Warren
February 3rd 2003, 10:06 PM
Revolg, how long ago did you leave?

(btw- I grew up kinda close to Ft. Wayne- in Kendallville. I guess it seems kinda close, because to go anywhere or do anything, we had to go all the way to Ft. Wayne on the weekends!!)
Rubia Warren
February 8th 2003, 02:21 PM
Hm. I was hoping that this thread would get a little farther than what it did. I still wonder why it was done differently.
Jaltus
February 8th 2003, 03:38 PM
Ummm, I'd like to point out that Peter is saying that repentance AND the baptism are in Jesus name, not just the baptism. It would be obvious to all there that they were baptized into God and the Holy Spirit (though they may not have thought of them as separated in any sense) but Jesus is the new addition.

Why preach the obvious?

Again, the linkage to repentance is why only Jesus' name is mentioned.
Jaltus
February 8th 2003, 03:39 PM
Oh, and just so you know, the main verb in Matthew 28:19-20 is GO, all the rest are participles depending on "GO" for their force.
nickcopernicus
October 17th 2007, 07:11 AM
Should it be:

1. In the name of the Father, and of the Son, and the Holy Spirit as commanded by Jesus in His name?

Or

2. In Jesus's name as "used" in the New Testament?
Nick:
This question assumes that we should baptize people. We should not.
As there is no god, a ritual such as baptization is largly a waste of time.


Cheers,

Nick
gharfish
October 17th 2007, 07:29 AM
Nick:
This question assumes that we should baptize people. We should not.
As there is no god, a ritual such as baptization is largly a waste of time.


Cheers,

NickGrrrrr. No gawd ! No gawd !
Gottfried
October 17th 2007, 07:38 AM
Should it be:

1. In the name of the Father, and of the Son, and the Holy Spirit as commanded by Jesus in His name?

Or

2. In Jesus' name as "used" in the New Testament?

Hallo Revolg,

The two formulas are both wrong. To baptise saying: "I baptise you in the name of the Father, and of the Son and of the Holy Spirit" is wrong, and to baptise saying: "I baptise you in the name of Jesus" is wrong.

The correct formula is: "I baptise you in the name of the Lord Jesus Christ." The name (singular) of the Father and of the Son and of the Holy Spirit is Lord Jesus Christ.

It makes all the difference.

Geoffrey