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Preacherman
December 18th 2004, 06:19 PM
So, because DeeD thought this would make a good topic...:

What is the proper use of the law, specifically in proclaiming the Gospel...and in what ways can we, as the church of Jesus, Christ...use the law in its proper context to lead sinners to salvation...?


have fun.

Dee Dee Warren
December 18th 2004, 06:21 PM
:popcorn:

I pestered the preacherman to start a thread, so don't let me down oh Tweb faithful

spiritmech
December 18th 2004, 08:17 PM
Good topic.

When I got saved, it was because I recognized that I was a sinner and that I couldn't find happiness on my own. The law represents what the Israelites were to do in order to gain blessings from God, specifically national blessings with respect to security and peace.

While that doesn't directly apply to us today, it shows us the necessity of the Holy Spirit in helping us to follow God's commands. Without the law, the concept of "sin" makes no sense, and we would have no idea we need saving.

Steve

George Murphy
December 18th 2004, 08:27 PM
Good topic.

When I got saved, it was because I recognized that I was a sinner and that I couldn't find happiness on my own. The law represents what the Israelites were to do in order to gain blessings from God, specifically national blessings with respect to security and peace.

While that doesn't directly apply to us today, it shows us the necessity of the Holy Spirit in helping us to follow God's commands. Without the law, the concept of "sin" makes no sense, and we would have no idea we need saving.

SteveThe most important use of the law theologically is to show people that they are sinners, and thus in need of salvation. (Consequently this is sometimes called simply "the theological use of the law.") Rom.3:20 is a basic text for this.

The law also functions in its "civil use" to maintain order in society and make life in the world possible. (This does not mean that civil law must be connected explicitly with the 10 Commandments.) Only external obedience to the law is needed for this, while in its theological use the law judges hearts, motives &c.

Both of these functions of the law apply to Christians because they continue to sin and to live in society. But whether or not there is a distinctive "third use of the law" as a guide to Christian living has been debated beteween Lutheran & Reformed traditions.

The law is a necessary part of proclamation but it must not be confused with the gospel in its narrow sense (i.e., the doctrine of justification) and should precede the gospel. I.e., as soon as the law has done its work, the gospel should be proclaimed. A classic text on this is C.F.W. Walther, The Proper Distinction between Law and Gospel (Concordia, 1929).

Shalom,
George

spiritmech
December 18th 2004, 08:31 PM
The most important use of the law theologically is to show people that they are sinners, and thus in need of salvation. (Consequently this is sometimes called simply "the theological use of the law.") Rom.3:20 is a basic text for this.

The law also functions in its "civil use" to maintain order in society and make life in the world possible. (This does not mean that civil law must be connected explicitly with the 10 Commandments.) Only external obedience to the law is needed for this, while in its theological use the law judges hearts, motives &c.

Both of these functions of the law apply to Christians because they continue to sin and to live in society. But whether or not there is a distinctive "third use of the law" as a guide to Christian living has been debated beteween Lutheran & Reformed traditions.

Shalom,
George

I'm not sure you can really divide the meanings and intentions of the law into different slices like that. I think they all blend together, personally. It seems very post-Enlightenment to split the aspects out and treat them separately.

Steve

George Murphy
December 18th 2004, 08:56 PM
I'm not sure you can really divide the meanings and intentions of the law into different slices like that. I think they all blend together, personally. It seems very post-Enlightenment to split the aspects out and treat them separately.

SteveBoy, you're quick! I think you may have replied to my post in the few minutes before I added a paragraph.

Of course the law may often be fulfilling both functions at once - restraining a person from behavior which disrupts society while at the same time making that person aware that he/she falls short of the law's demand. But it is possible to make the distinction conceptually (I just did!) & even necessary to do so. E.g., if the preacher confuses these 2 uses of the law, he/she is likely to convey the impression that civil righteousness has some value in justifying a person in God's sight. The law in its theological use is supposed to kill, not wound - let alone encourage self-righteousness.

As to being post-Enlightenment, these distinctions are found in Luther & Calvin & for Lutherans are formalized in Article 6 of the 1580 Formula of Concord. (This is titled "The Third Function of the Law" but whether it teaches a distinctively Christian use is debatable.) In fact I think they may go back to pre-Reformation scholasticism.

Shalom,
George

spiritmech
December 18th 2004, 09:05 PM
"In fact I think they may go back to pre-Reformation scholasticism." Now that's interesting. I'll have to look into that. I think I've seen the distinction (ceremonial, moral,and I forget the third) before (by another Lutheran) and it had seemed a little artificial to me, but I'll have to check it out.

Steve

George Murphy
December 18th 2004, 10:42 PM
"In fact I think they may go back to pre-Reformation scholasticism." Now that's interesting. I'll have to look into that. I think I've seen the distinction (ceremonial, moral,and I forget the third) before (by another Lutheran) and it had seemed a little artificial to me, but I'll have to check it out.

SteveThe ceremonial/moral distinction isn't really the same thing. That would differentiate, e.g., between regulations for observing the Passover (ceremonial) & the commandment against murder (moral). The distinction between uses of the law would apply to the different ways in which the commandment against murder (e.g.) was applied. The civil use would just say, "Don't actually kill anyone" (waiving questions about just war &c). The theological use would ask a person "Have you hated your neighbor? Have you done everything you can to help him in his bodily needs? &c" - with the final result that the person would finally have to say "I have fallen short of the law's demands."

Shalom,
George

Preacherman
December 21st 2004, 07:45 PM
<<<<When I got saved, it was because I recognized that I was a sinner and that I couldn't find happiness on my own. >>>>


Hmmm, i need to challenge you with a question..."Is the purpose of our salvation for 'happiness', or is it for the glory of God..and righteousness sake?

I have always thought that the problem with too much of our preaching is that it appeals to the "sinner's" selfish needs, or rather desires, instead of appealing to the moral law written in our hearts by God...ie: conscience...and as you say, showing us our utter need of a savior...just a thought...:)

And since you have all replied so quickly, thank you btw....i guess it would be fair to state what i believe the purpose, and proper use of "the law' is....well...ok, but not ere...;)

Preacherman
December 21st 2004, 08:05 PM
Well, it is only fair that i state where I stand on the topic...so here it is:

I believe that the "Law"...ie moral law, as summed up in the 10 commandments, was given to the Israelites, as a tool to show the rest of the world ourdesperate need of the savior...i do believe that they misused it, and tried to be justified by it...jesus came to show us the spiritual nature of the law, as pointed out by one of you,,,murder/hate....adultery/lust....you get the idea.

Well, i do believe, as stated inRom, 3:19ff that the purpose of the law is to leave us speechless, and utterly self condemned before our god...and if we refuse to 'accept'..(i use that word carefully) the suffering and sacrifice of christ to redeem us...then we still answer to the law. (Jas 2:10)

not a pretty picture...but i think we do not preach the "whole counsel' of God if we do not first show men they are transgressors of the law...and if their heart is prepared by the Holy Spirit, and they come contrite, without trying to justify themselves...then we share the good news...as Jesus did...but if the sinner comes with a mouth full of their own righteousness...then we do, as Jesus did...give them the law again to show them the true nature of their sin....perhaps their heart is not yet ready to receive the seed of the gospel.....I do not believe we are to make it easy, or soft sell the message...after all, we are to scatter the seed, not responsible for the growth...that is God's job..:)

Well, any ????'s