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AntonS
December 28th 2004, 07:21 AM
I live in Russia. I heard an interview with the philologist Nikolay Vashkevich on the radio. He says that it is possible to explain each language using only one language either Arabic or Russian. For example: Russia=Syria, Damascus=Moskow, We=Me (rus). It is sometimes reasonable to read words from the end, to invert letters, to shift syllables. Then Masevafa=Vasemafa. If it is true, Arabic or Russian is likely to be the language that was before confusing.

Dave G
December 28th 2004, 08:28 AM
A philologist studies texts, and isn't a linguist. What happens to Proto-Indo-European in this scenario?

kofh2u
December 29th 2004, 03:14 PM
The idea that Gen 11 could be explained by assuming that only one language existed ignors so much more about what the text says.
A look at the tree of languages does seem to suggest that many branches grew from some original prime source. But, Genesis 11 brings in many other facets to its story.

How would one language have been such a concern to the almighty power above?

Gen. 11:7 Go to, let us, (these pantheistic nature laws that formed these evolving creatures), go down, and there (mix together and mingle), confound, [balal: "mix"], their language, (their psychological, archetypal boundaries of their thinking; [saphah: a boundary]), that they may not understand one another’s (psychological language), speech. [saphah: a boundary].

AntonS
December 30th 2004, 06:21 AM
A philologist studies texts, and isn't a linguist. What happens to Proto-Indo-European in this scenario?He is also an expert on Arabic, linguist, author of books, for example, "Russian abracadabras", "The clue to Noah's Ark", "Where is the beginning of Russian". I have not read them. I have no time for this.What happens to Proto-Indo-European in this scenario?I do not know what does "Proto-Indo-European" mean....their psychological, archetypal boundaries of their thinking...I do not agree! It is not a honest language to see at someone, to point at someone in order to gain something. Some people speak this dishonest language, maybe i sometimes do too, but They confused the other language.

Sparko
January 14th 2005, 05:30 PM
Everyone knows the original language was English. According to all of the television shows when people go to other planets or when aliens visit us, they all speak English, so that means English is the language of the Universe.

It is on TV so it must be true. Examples are Star Trek, Stargate SG1, and hundreds of other shows.

HerodionRomulus
July 12th 2005, 01:46 PM
A few hundred years ago people would have said that it was Hebrew. That Adam and Eve spoke Hebrew.

However, American English is it. As the prior poster said: it's on TV so it must be right. :lol:

wfaber
July 12th 2005, 01:57 PM
I checked out my King James Bible on Genesis chapters 2-5. It seems that Adam and Eve both spoke some sort of archaic English, circa AD 1600.

Meh_Gerbil
July 12th 2005, 02:40 PM
Eubonics.

"Sup Eve"

"I done did tha apple, yo"

"Aww..my ho done tore me up"

"Beeeotch"

"Beeeotch"

--------------------------------------------

Of course, that means they were fallen BEFORE they ate the apple.

wfaber
July 12th 2005, 03:04 PM
What apple? I thought if was a date nut. They grow in the Euphrates valley.

FirstSunday33ad
July 12th 2005, 03:53 PM
I live in Russia. I heard an interview with the philologist Nikolay Vashkevich on the radio. He says that it is possible to explain each language using only one language either Arabic or Russian. For example: Russia=Syria, Damascus=Moskow, We=Me (rus). It is sometimes reasonable to read words from the end, to invert letters, to shift syllables. Then Masevafa=Vasemafa. If it is true, Arabic or Russian is likely to be the language that was before confusing.

The myth is more of a parable than a telling of history. Its roots are theorized as being in a society that fell as a result of allowing too many foreigners into the borders as labourers.

HerodionRomulus
July 12th 2005, 04:39 PM
The myth is more of a parable than a telling of history. Its roots are theorized as being in a society that fell as a result of allowing too many foreigners into the borders as labourers.

¿Que? ¿Quienes?

AntonS
July 13th 2005, 01:35 AM
The myth is more of a parable than a telling of history. Its roots are theorized as being in a society that fell as a result of allowing too many foreigners into the borders as labourers.
Do you know the real history?

bandecoot
July 13th 2005, 03:13 AM
Do you know the real history?


Sparky if you value your sanity, do not look upon antonS' answer. Think Cthulu, and the architechure of R'yah Y'leth. To look upon it is to be driven past the brink. I Beg you, turn back...do not suffer my fate.

Flame
July 18th 2005, 03:07 AM
The ancient semetic script (used by ancient hebrew, aramaic, and other languages - most of which aren't around anymore) is found on every continent except Antartica, leading me to believe that a Semetic language was likely the "first" language if there was a first language.

I live in Russia. I heard an interview with the philologist Nikolay Vashkevich on the radio. He says that it is possible to explain each language using only one language either Arabic or Russian. For example: Russia=Syria, Damascus=Moskow, We=Me (rus). It is sometimes reasonable to read words from the end, to invert letters, to shift syllables. Then Masevafa=Vasemafa. If it is true, Arabic or Russian is likely to be the language that was before confusing.

HRG_new
July 18th 2005, 04:21 AM
The ancient semetic script (used by ancient hebrew, aramaic, and other languages - most of which aren't around anymore) is found on every continent except Antartica, leading me to believe that a Semetic language was likely the "first" language if there was a first language.

You mean that the Mayan glyphs or the Inca quipus were based on semitic script ? Really ?

And Sumerian cuneiform has been around at least 1000 years before the first semitic letters appeared.

Flame
July 18th 2005, 07:54 PM
You mean that the Mayan glyphs or the Inca quipus were based on semitic script ? Really ?

And Sumerian cuneiform has been around at least 1000 years before the first semitic letters appeared.
And they say atheists are allegedly open-minded.

If he was rational, like atheists allegedly are, he'd simply ask me for proof.

Of course, he jumps from one thing to another (like some Christians) and assumes I'm talking about something else. The brilliance of Athe-anity never ceases to amaze me.

HerodionRomulus
July 19th 2005, 02:14 PM
The ancient semetic script (used by ancient hebrew, aramaic, and other languages - most of which aren't around anymore) is found on every continent except Antartica, leading me to believe that a Semetic language was likely the "first" language if there was a first language.


Really? There is evidence of this in Australia as well?

bandecoot
July 19th 2005, 08:24 PM
Really? There is evidence of this in Australia as well?
Of course not, The australian Indigenes were preliterate or Proto litereate. They used symbols as Aides to memory.

Nicholas
August 14th 2005, 09:18 PM
I saw this one funny tv movie called "The Librarian" where it supposed to be some sort of language of the birds or some such thing.

But in all seriousness, the oldest language that I've read about is the Mesopotamian Cuneiform, though some more information on the subject of the origin of language might be gleaned from wikipedia: http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Origins_of_language