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Heero Yuy
12-26-2014, 08:35 PM
Why do Jehovah's Witnesses translate this verse so differently? I have talked to Jehovah's Witnesses and they gave me a copy of their Bible. Reading in Matthew I came across the following:

biblehub.com/matthew/11-12.htm


www.jw.org/en/publications/bible/nwt/books/matthew/11/#v40011012

Why eliminate the references to violence?

I have read from reading amazon reviews of the NWT that according to JWs, the translators use Biblical Criticism when interpreting how to translate a passage. I also read in the secion of the Bible dealing with how the translators translated it that some passages are misleading if rendered literally, but isn't it dishonest to pre-emtively decide a translation could be misleading? I mean, they might be right, but it might only seem misleading but actually be correct and just conflict with JW doctrine, right? How do you decide whether the passage would be misleading if translated literally, or if in actuality it conflicts with JW doctrine? This is also a general apologetics question because I have heard some similar charges brought against the NIV: for instance by Paul Tobin of "The Rejection of Pascal's Wager," and "Ebonmusings," when they talk about the NIV.


-Heero

37818
12-27-2014, 06:57 PM
The word (third person singular) translated "suffereth violence" is being translated "which men press" (as if third person plural, which it is not) and the word (which is in the plural) translated "the violent" is being translated "those pressing." (v.12)

Jedidiah
12-27-2014, 08:46 PM
Keep in mind that the New World is, as your post implied, based upon the doctrine of the Watch Tower Bible and Tract Society. If there are verses that disagree with those doctrines they are translated to avoid that conflict. John 1:1 is the classic example. I am not sure why they make the translation (or adaptation) you refer to.