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Ray Watson
June 18th 2003, 04:37 PM
WHO CAN BLASPHEME THE HOLY GHOST?

A lost person does not have to blaspheme the Holy Ghost to be lost for he is condemned already. To understand who can blaspheme against the Holy Ghost, we must first know whom the Lord Jesus Christ was talking to when he made the statement, “but the blasphemy against the Holy Ghost shall not be forgiven unto men.” (Matthew 12:31)
1. He was talking to the Pharisees of the Nation of Israel. (Matthew 12:24)
2. The body of Christ was a mystery while Jesus was on earth. (Romans 16:25)

Under the law, “in the mouth of two or three witnesses shall every word be established.”(II Corinthians 13:1) There are three murders in Israel’s history that mark her rejection of their Christ.
1. The Father sent his prophets and the Nation of Israel killed them. John the Baptist was one of these prophets. He came preaching the baptism of repentance for the remission of sins (Mark 1:3-4) and preparing the way of the Lord. The Nation of Israel allowed him to be slain. This was the first witness.
2. Jesus came preaching, repent for the kingdom of heaven is at hand (Matthew 4:17) and they crucified him. They rejected God the Son this is the second witness. On the cross, Jesus prayed for the Nation of Israel, “Father forgive them for they know not what they do.”(Luke 23:34) This prayer made it possible for the kingdom to be offer the third time to the Nation of Israel. This is recorded in the first seven chapters of the book of Acts.
3. The third witness is the unpardonable sin; they rejected the Holy Ghost and killed Stephen (Acts 7:54-60). The death of Stephen marks the close of God’s offer of the kingdom to the Nation of Israel. The apostle Paul is called in Acts Chapter 9 and God gives him the gospel of the grace of God. He goes to the Jew first but they blaspheme the Holy Ghost (Acts 18:6) and then he turns to the gentiles. The Nation of Israel is blinded “until the fullness of the Gentiles be come in.” (Romans 11:25) Today God is dealing with everyone alike and there is neither Jew nor Gentile (Gal 3:28; Eph 2:12). After the rapture of the body of Christ (the church), the next thing to happen to the Nation of Israel is the wrath of God will fall and God will deal with the Nation of Israel again (Daniel 9:24-26). www.graceagechurch.com

Bill the Cat
June 18th 2003, 05:09 PM
Ray,

Good post. In my denomination's belief, the only ones who can commit the unforgivable sin are those who'se fate is already sealed... those in Hades.

I'm still researching it though... :deal:

JardinPrayer
June 18th 2003, 05:25 PM
This from John Gill's Exposition of the Bible:
but the blasphemy against the Holy Ghost, shall not be forgiven unto men:

by which is meant, not every ignorant denial of, and opposition to his deity and personality; nor all resistance of him in the external ministry of the word; nor every sin that is knowingly and wilfully committed; but it is a despiteful usage of the Spirit of grace, an opposing, contradicting, and denying the operations wrought, or doctrines revealed by him, against a man's own light and conscience, out of wilful and obstinate malice, on purpose to lessen the glory of God, and gratify his own lusts: such was the sin of the Scribes and Pharisees; who, though they knew the miracles of Christ were wrought by the Spirit of God, yet maliciously and obstinately imputed them to the devil, with a view to obscure the glory of Christ, and indulge their own wicked passions and resentments against him; which sin was unpardonable at that present time, as well as under that dispensation then to come, when the Spirit of God was poured down in a more plenteous manner.

I've never explored this topic before, but that sounds reasonable to me. Let's figure it out together here. Ray, what is your take on this passage? I'm not 100% sure I understand where you want to take this thread, but I think it's a facinating subject!

Peace,
Jardin

Jaltus
June 18th 2003, 08:08 PM
Hmmm, let us look at what Matthew says in context:

30 "He who is not with me is against me, and he who does not gather with me scatters.
31 And so I tell you, every sin and blasphemy will be forgiven men, but the blasphemy against the Spirit will not be forgiven.
32 Anyone who speaks a word against the Son of Man will be forgiven, but anyone who speaks against the Holy Spirit will not be forgiven, either in this age or in the age to come.

It looks like there is no limitation within the text. The problem with the explanation given by Ray Watson is that it assumes dispensationalism, something that I would tend to not agree with.

Use the text to interpret that text.

Look at the parallel in Mark 3:29 and you will see the same thing, it is not limited other than to being by Jesus' enemies.

Those who have posted before me assume that it is limited to those who are not saved or not going to be saved, but there is nothing in this passage that makes such a limitation.

Ray Watson
June 19th 2003, 05:36 PM
When we get mail we always look at the name to whom the mail is addressed. Jesus was addressing the Pharisees of Israel Matt 12:24. When they blaspheme the Holy Ghost they were not forgiven for they were blinded and the nation was cut off (Rom 11:25) and now God is dealing with indivuals (Gal 3:28) not any favorited nation. This is not the sin unto death. www.graceagechurch.com

Homie
June 19th 2003, 08:41 PM
He was speaking to the Pharisees, yes, but in Matt 12:31 he was talking about men in general, the text is obvious:
"but the blasphemy against the Holy Ghost shall not be forgiven unto men"

RAY WATSON
and now God is dealing with indivuals (Gal 3:28) not any favorited nation

HOMIE
This is incomprehensible to me, why would God only deal with a single nation in the 1st place, why favour a nation? Where our ancestors not worth as much as the Jews. I have seen the OT as God using the Jews as a tool, but when I think about it it seems more correct what you say, but it doesn't seem fair. Isn't God suppose to be fair?

JardinPrayer
June 19th 2003, 10:07 PM
God isn't necessarily "fair," in our sense of the word...but He is just. He makes it very clear to Abraham that his seed shall spawn a blessed nation, favored by Him. No?

yxboom
June 19th 2003, 10:18 PM
Acts 7:44 "Our fathers had the tent of witness in the wilderness, just as he who spoke to Moses directed him to make it, according to the pattern that he had seen. 45 Our fathers in turn brought it in with Joshua when they dispossessed the nations that God drove out before our fathers. So it was until the days of David, 46 who found favor in the sight of God and asked to find a dwelling place for the God of Jacob.

:poke:

JardinPrayer
June 20th 2003, 03:29 PM
Amen. Thank you.

Ray Watson
June 22nd 2003, 08:50 PM
Hommie it is true that God is deal with everbody alike today (Gal 3:28) but when Jesus told the Pharisees if they blaspheme the Holy Ghost, He was talking to only one nation and that was the Nation of Israel. He was sent only to the Nation of Israel (Matt 15:24) and He send His 12 apostles to the Lost sheep of the Nation of Israel only (Matt 10:6). When the Nation of Israel rejected Him as their King and they blaspheme the Holy Ghost (Acts 7:51) they were blinded and that sins was not forgiven them (Rom 11:25). Now the gentiles (which had no hope) have been added into God's program (Eph 2:11-13) and today there is neither Jew or gentile. How can we as saved people today blasphene the Holy Ghost? We can't because we are sealed with that Holy Spirit untill the day of redemption (Eph 4:30). www.graceagechurch.com

johnnybanano
June 25th 2003, 05:56 AM
Posted by Ray Watson on 06-18-2003 02:37 PM:
Who can blaspheme the Holy Ghost?


If one believes that all people have free will, then anyone can blaspheme the Holy Spirit. I see no reason to believe that the warning found in Matt. 12:31 and Mark 3:29 do not apply to all men.

Posted by Ray Watson on 06-19-2003 03:36 PM:
Who can blaspheme the Holy Ghost

When we get mail we always look at the name to whom the mail is addressed. Jesus was addressing the Pharisees of Israel Matt 12:24.


Yes, and the warning applied to those to whom Jesus was speaking. However, it also applies to all men.


This is not the sin unto death.


What isn't the sin unto death? Blaspheming the Holy Spirit? What do you mean unto death? Jesus said:

Matt. 12:32b
"...but anyone who speaks against the Holy Spirit will not be forgiven, either in this age or in the age to come."

Mk. 3:29
"But whoever blasphemes against the Holy Spirit will never be forgiven; he is guilty of an eternal sin."

Lk. 12:10b
"...but anyone who blasphemes against the Holy Spirit will not be forgiven."

This collection of verses says that anyone who blasphemes against the Holy Spirit will not be forgiven. How can anyone dispute that? Questions may be raised about these unforgiven people will eventually get to heaven, or why exactly men are able to be forgiven for blaspheming the Son but not the Spirit, but surely no one can argue that these verses tell us that any person who blasphemes the Holy Spirit is guilty of a sin which will not be forgiven, not in this age nor in the age to come. Whether this means it is the "sin unto death" is not obviously relevant to me.

Posted by Ray Watson on 06-22-2003 06:50 PM:
Who can blaspheme the Holy Ghost?

Hommie it is true that God is deal with everbody alike today (Gal 3:28) but when Jesus told the Pharisees if they blaspheme the Holy Ghost, He was talking to only one nation and that was the Nation of Israel. He was sent only to the Nation of Israel (Matt 15:24) and He send His 12 apostles to the Lost sheep of the Nation of Israel only (Matt 10:6).


Are we then to assume that everything which Jesus said to the Pharisees applied only either to the Pharisees or Isreal? This seems to be your reasoning. No offense, if it isn't please explain. This is just how I am seeing what you are saying. I see no other reason for thinking that this warning applies only to Israel.


How can we as saved people today blasphene the Holy Ghost? We can't because we are sealed with that Holy Spirit untill the day of redemption (Eph 4:30).


Do we not have the ability to blaspheme the Holy Spirit because God gave us His Spirit? Do you not think that someone who has received the Holy Spirit can loose it? Just a couple questions.

I, for one, believe that a person may get saved, begin a process of salvation, receive the Holy Spirit, and still be tempted by greed and selfishness, acquire enough sin to where they begin to push away the Spirit, and then loose it completely to where they may now blaspheme it. But then again, as I am writing that, I am realizing that I could be completely wrong.

In the Mark passage, it goes on to say...

Mk. 3:30
"He said this because they were saying, 'He has an evil spirit.'"

I am fairly certain that a Gentile could say about someone who was speaking by the Holy Spirit, "That guy's demon-possesed!"

That seems to be the essence of what the Pharisees were saying.

Oh well, I suppose that I have said my piece.

Peace!

Love and Respect

Ray Watson
June 25th 2003, 11:39 PM
Johnny Banano I will try and answer some of your question. If what Jesus said during his earth ministry to the Nation of Israel (Matt 15:24; Matt 10:6) applies to all men as you have said then does all of Jesus saying applie to all men? The rich man in Matt 19:16 ask Jesus what good thing he had to do to have eternal life? Jesus told him to keep the commandments and to sell all he had and give it to the poor (Mat 19:16-21). Does this applie to us?
Jesus told the leprosy man that he healed to take a offering to the priest for his cleansing (Mark 1:44). Is this for all men? Jesus said to pick up the serpents (Mark 16:17). Should all men pick up serpents? He said they "shall". Jesus said, "but he that believth not is condemned already" How can he blasphem the Holy Ghost?
A saved man today believing on what Christ did on the cross for his sin, can not blasphem the Holy Ghost because he is sealed by the Holy Spirit (Eph 1:13; Eph 4:13). He has been baptised by the Spirit into the Body of Christ (I Cor 12:13). He has been circumcised with the operation made without hands(Col 2:11) He is a new creature in Christ (II Cor 5:17). He is now the temple of the Holy Ghost (I Cor 3:16). How can a truly saved person today ever be lost? It simple, he can not. One last item is the sin unto death. This is not the blaspheme of the Holy Ghost but is the chastening of God for a saved person that has not judged his sins and turned from them (I Cor11:30-32). What else can I say, The Nation of Israel killed the prophets of God, They had the Son of God killed on the cross, and when they blaspheme the Holy Ghost (Acts 7:51; Acts 18:16) they were blinded and God turned to all alike and this sin was not forgiven them (Rom 11:25) www.graceagechurch.com

Grace and Peace
Ray

johnnybanano
June 26th 2003, 04:34 AM
Thanks for your response. Here's mine...

Posted by Ray Watson on Yesterday 09:39 PM:
If what Jesus said during his earth ministry to the Nation of Israel (Matt 15:24; Matt 10:6) applies to all men as you have said then does all of Jesus saying applie to all men?


No. Only if Jesus says that it is applicable to anyone.

Jesus said,

...but anyone who speaks against the Holy Spirit will not be forgiven, either in this age or in the age to come. Matt. 12:32b (NIV)

All Jesus would have had to do would be to specify that he was talking only to the Nation of Israel.


Posted by Ray Watson on Yesterday 09:39 PM:
The rich man in Matt 19:16 ask Jesus what good thing he had to do to have eternal life? Jesus told him to keep the commandments and to sell all he had and give it to the poor (Mat 19:16-21). Does this applie to us?

The message that Jesus was conveying was that the man had to put God above all things. Although he may have kept the commandments, that didn't mean that God was the most important thing in his life. Jesus told him that in order to have eternal life, he had to get rid of all of his possessions, demonstrating that God was more important than money. There is a section of Jesus teaching about how one cannot serve both God and money(Matt. 6:19-24). This is what Jesus was telling the young man when he instructed him to sell all his possessions. That message that we cannot serve both God and money does extend to all men, as does the fact that anyone is not right with God if he considers his possessions important enough to weep over when he is told to put God above them. This young man walks away sad because he has to give up his possessions and follow Christ. Clearly he was not right w/ God. You may say that Jesus still does not require all men to sell everything that they own in order to recieve eternal life. This may be true, however, Jesus did not phrase his sentence: "If any man wishes to receive eternal life, he must go and sell all his possessions and give the money to the poor. He said,

If you want to be perfect, go, sell your possessions and give to the poor, and you will have treasure in heaven. Then come, follow me.

The man asked him a direct, personal question. "What must I do to be saved?" Jesus told him, "If you want to..., sell your possesions..."

Another interesting point here is that when the young man asks what he must do to get eternal life, Jesus tells him first to obey all of the neighbor commandments, i.e. those pertaining to the relationship between people. He does not at first list the God commandments, i.e. those pertaining to the relationship between God and man (eg. keep Sabbath, no other gods before me, no idols, don't misuse the name of God). When the man answered that he had kept all the neighbor commandments he may have been right, but he had not kept the commandments preserving the relationship between God and man.


Posted by Ray Watson on Yesterday 09:39 PM:
Jesus told the leprosy man that he healed to take a offering to the priest for his cleansing (Mark 1:44). Is this for all men?


No. It was not directed to all men, nor was it applicable to all men, nor did Jesus say, "Anyone who is healed by me is to take an offering to the priest for his cleansing.


Posted by Ray Watson on Yesterday 09:39 PM:
Jesus said to pick up the serpents (Mark 16:17). Should all men pick up serpents? He said they "shall".


This is not what Jesus said. Jesus said that picking up of snakes would be one of multiple signs accompanying people who believe. He did not say that these signs would accompany every person who believes, nor did he say that these signs would accompany anyone who believes forever. He simply said that these will be signs that will accompany [some of?] those who believe. And they did. Each sign later accompanied some of the apostles and believers.

Mk. 16:17
In my name they will drive out demons;

In Acts 5:16, the apostles healed those who were tormented by evil spirits.

Mk. 16:17
...they will speak in new tongues;

In Acts 2:4, those at the Pentecost recieved the ability to speak in tongues.

Mk. 16:18
...they will pick up snakes with their hands; and when they drink deadly poison, it will not hurt them at all;

Paul fulfills this in Acts 28:3-6 when he has a snake fastening itself to his hand yet does not die from the venom.

Mk. 16:18
...they will place their hands on sick people, and they will get well.

This is also fulfilled in Acts 5:16 when the apostles heal many sick people.


Posted by Ray Watson on Yesterday 09:39 PM:
Jesus said, "but he that believth not is condemned already" How can he blasphem the Holy Ghost?


How can a person who doesn't believe and is already condemned blaspheme the Holy Spirit? Pretty simple I would assume. A person who doesn't believe says that a person who is speaking by the Holy Spirit is speaking by an evil spirit. Ta-da!



Posted by Ray Watson on Yesterday 09:39 PM:
A saved man today believing on what Christ did on the cross for his sin, can not blasphem the Holy Ghost because he is sealed by the Holy Spirit (Eph 1:13; Eph 4:13). He has been baptised by the Spirit into the Body of Christ (I Cor 12:13). He has been circumcised with the operation made without hands(Col 2:11) He is a new creature in Christ (II Cor 5:17). He is now the temple of the Holy Ghost (I Cor 3:16). How can a truly saved person today ever be lost? It simple, he can not.


It's not really simple but perhaps you are correct in saying that a person who has the Holy Spirit cannot blaspheme the Holy Spirit. I do not argue against that. I am not saying that it is impossible that only the Nation of Israel has/had the capability of blaspheming the Holy Spirit. (I think that this is what you are saying.) I am simply saying that I don't believe it is the most logical conclusion from the verses in question.

I don't like to have my posts too long. I think that it is easier to read if they are short, so I will continue this in my next post.
More to come...

Love and Respect

johnnybanano
June 26th 2003, 04:39 AM
All right, Part Two of my response. Thanks for your patience. Your responses are certainly appreciated.


Posted by Ray Watson on Yesterday 09:39 PM:
One last item is the sin unto death. This is not the blaspheme of the Holy Ghost but is the chastening of God for a saved person that has not judged his sins and turned from them (I Cor11:30-32).

I am not sure I understand. Could you explain "the chastening of God for a saved person that has not judged his sins and turn from them," as well as its relevance?


Posted by Ray Watson on Yesterday 09:39 PM:
What else can I say, The Nation of Israel killed the prophets of God, They had the Son of God killed on the cross, and when they blaspheme the Holy Ghost (Acts 7:51; Acts 18:16) they were blinded and God turned to all alike and this sin was not forgiven them (Rom 11:25)

This is where i really loose you. You are saying that the nation of Israel is the only one who has/had the capability of blaspheming the Holy Spirit, right? If that's the case, then when they were "blinded and God turned to all alike and this sin was not forgiven them," one can also conclude that this sin will not be forgiven them, either in this age or in the age to come, it being an eternal sin. (Matt. 12:32b, Mk. 3:29b) However, this does not seem to be the case because as you yourself point out, in Romans 11,

Ro. 11:26

And so all Israel will be saved, as it is written:

If all Israel is saved from an eternal sin, what is the significance of the sin being eternal?

I appreciate the response. I remind you that these responses were written in respect and courtesy to the best of my ability.

Love and Respect

Ray Watson
June 26th 2003, 02:08 PM
Johnny If Jesus says one thing (like blasheme the Holy Ghost) and you say it is to all men, then when He says somthing else you say that is not for all men. It would seem to me that you can pick and chose. Jesus tells a gentle woman in Matthew 15:24 he is not sent but to lost sheep of the House of Israel, How could he be talking to all men?
M't:15:24: But he answered and said, I am not sent but unto the lost sheep of the house of Israel. Maybe he didn't mean what He said but He said it. He sent His apotles to the lost sheep of the House of Israel. M't:10:5: These twelve Jesus sent forth, and commanded them, saying, Go not into the way of the Gentiles, and into any city of the Samaritans enter ye not: Maybe He didn't mean this but He said it. What I am saying is the fact that before Jesus went the cross His ministry was to Israel only. How could He be talking to all men everwhere when He never deals with the gentiles? There is a time when Israel will be forgiven their sins of blasheme the Holy Ghost. When He make a new covenant with the House of Judah and Israel (Heb 8:8-11) at the second coming.
Ro:11:26: And so all Israel shall be saved: as it is written, There shall come out of Sion the Deliverer, and shall turn away ungodliness from Jacob:
Ro:11:27: For this is my covenant unto them, when I shall take away their sins. The only thing I can tell you is the same thing I keep saying. A lost person is going to hell whether he blasheme the Holy Ghost or not. The saved person can't blasheme the Holy Ghost because he is sealed by that Spirit. So who does that leave that Jesus is talking to? The Nation of Israel. What is the blasheme of the Holy Ghost? The Nation of Israel resist the Holy Ghost and were blinded. Ac:7:51: Ye stiffnecked and uncircumcised in heart and ears, ye do always resist the Holy Ghost: as your fathers did, so do ye.
As for the sin unto death, When a saved person is living in sin and will not trun from that sin and judge it, then God will judge it.
1Co:11:30: For this cause many are weak and sickly among you, and many sleep.
1Co:11:31: For if we would judge ourselves, we should not be judged.
1Co:11:32: But when we are judged, we are chastened of the Lord, that we should not be condemned with the world.
www.graceagechurch.com

Grace and Peace
Ray

johnnybanano
June 27th 2003, 03:24 AM
Yesterday @ 12:08 PM post located here (http://www.theologyweb.com/forum/showthread.php?s=&postid=133256#post133256)
Ray Watson:

Johnny If Jesus says one thing (like blasheme the Holy Ghost) and you say it is to all men, then when He says somthing else you say that is not for all men. It would seem to me that you can pick and chose.


Not quite. You see, the difference is that Jesus said,"anyone who speaks against the Holy Spirit will not be forgiven, either in this age or in the age to come." Matt. 12:32b

and that"...he is guilty of an eternal sin." Mk. 3:29b

The fact is that Jesus said "anyone" in this verse. He didn't say the word anyone, or anything like that in any of the other verses you compare it too. Now, I will go along with the idea that when he said "anyone", he could have meant "anyone who is of the Nation of Israel", but as you said earlier, Maybe he didn't mean what He said but He said it. Perhaps you are right, I am just saying that in this verse, he used the word "anyone". When I see that, I think that he means all men. I could be wrong, but that's my reasoning. Additionally, when you say, It would seem to me that you can pick and chose. Jesus tells a gentle woman in Matthew 15:24 he is not sent but to lost sheep of the House of Israel, How could he be talking to all men? it only stands to your logic that we should treat everything that Jesus said before his death as meant only for the Nation of Israel. You may agree with this, I am not sure, but it's a two way street.

Secondly, in response to Jesus being sent to the lost sheep of the House of Israel,What I am saying is the fact that before Jesus went the cross His ministry was to Israel only. I will agree with you here. After reviewing the Scripture, I cannot find a place where a Gentile is saved or ministered to by Jesus before he dies. That is, except of course for the Canaanite and Syprophonecian Women (I am not sure whether or not these are the same woman), but we'll just look at those as special circumstances of great faith which Jesus rewarded.


Now it seems that the only real disagreement we have is in this:

There is a time when Israel will be forgiven their sins of blasheme the Holy Ghost.


The problem that I have with this is that Mark 3:29 says that blasphemy of the Holy Spirit is an eternal sin and Matthew 12:32 says that they will not be forgiven for it either in this age or the next. Now, I can see how one could explain the Matthew clause (that it would not be forgiven them either in this age or the next) with the dispensational idea that the current age ended when Jesus died. That would mean that they were not forgiven for it "in this age", i.e. before Jesus died. And the next age, the age where salvation went to the Gentiles, ends at the second coming. That would mean that the Nation of Israel would not be forgiven for blaspheming the Holy Spirit "in the next [age]", i.e. the age where salvation went to the Gentiles. This of course would not stop the Nation of Israel from being forgiven for blaspheming the Holy Spirit in the next next age, i.e. the age of Jesus Second Coming.

The only problem with this is the fact that Mark 3:29 cannot be explained this way, as it refers to blasphemy of the Holy Spirit as an eternal sin. As I said in a former post, what is the significance of an eternal sin that can be forgiven. This is really the only problem that we still have :yipee: as I can now understand how you come to the conclusion that only the Nation of Israel can blaspheme the Holy Spirit.


Ro:11:27: For this is my covenant unto them, when I shall take away their sins.

Even the eternal sins?

Oh, one more thing...

The saved person can't blasheme the Holy Ghost because he is sealed by that Spirit.


Do you believe that everyone who is saved necessarily has the Holy Spirit? I don't think that they necessarily have the Holy Spirit because there was a time when I was "saved" (I believed in the death, burial, and resurrection of Christ for my only means of salvation) but I was not filled with the Holy Spirit. This may be a bit trivial due to semantics, but I am interested in what you think. It sounds like you believe that everyone who is saved has the Holy Spirit. You might be right. I am not sure yet.

Again, I appreciate your responses. Thanks.

Love and Respect

Bill the Cat
June 27th 2003, 08:45 AM
Something to chew on.

The ISBE says

(3) Blasphemy against the Holy Spirit: “Every sin and blasphemy shall be forgiven unto men; but the blasphemy against the Spirit shall not be forgiven. And whosoever shall speak a word against the Son of man, it shall be forgiven him; but whosoever shall speak against the Holy Spirit, it shall not be forgiven him, neither in this world, nor in that which is to come” (Mat_12:31, Mat_12:32 = Mar_3:28, Mar_3:29; Luk_12:10). As in the Old Testament “to sin with a high hand” and to blaspheme the name of God incurred the death penalty, so the blasphemy against the Holy Spirit remains the one unpardonable sin. These passages at least imply beyond cavil the personality of the Holy Spirit, for sin and blasphemy can only be committed against persons. In Mt and Mk a particular case of this blasphemy is the allegation of the Pharisees that Jesus Christ casts out devils by Beelzebub. The general idea is that to attribute to an evil source acts which are clearly those of the Holy Spirit, to call good evil, is blasphemy against the Spirit, and sin that will not be pardoned. “A distinction is made between Christ's other acts and those which manifestly reveal the Holy Spirit in Him, and between slander directed against Him personally as He appears in His ordinary acts, and that which is aimed at those acts in which the Spirit is manifest” (Gould, Mark at the place). Luke does not refer to any particular instance, and seems to connect it with the denial of Christ, although he, too, gives the saying that “who shall speak a word against the Son of man, it shall be forgiven.” But which of Christ's acts are not acts of the Holy Spirit, and how therefore is a word spoken against Him not also blasphemy against the Holy Spirit? John identifies the Holy Spirit with the exalted Christ (Joh_14:16-18, Joh_14:26, Joh_14:28). The solution generally offered of this most difficult problem is concisely put by Plummer (Luke ad loc.): “Constant and consummate opposition to the influence of the Holy Spirit, because of a deliberate preference of darkness to light, render repentance and therefore forgiveness morally impossible.” A similar idea is taught in Heb_6:4-6, and 1Jo_5:16 : “A sin unto death.” But the natural meaning of Christ's words implies an inability or unwillingness to forgive on the Divine side rather than inability to repent in man. Anyhow the abandonment of man to eternal condemnation involves the inability and defeat of God. The only alternative seems to be to call the kenotic theory into service, and to put this idea among the human limitations which Christ assumed when He became flesh. It is less difficult to ascribe a limit to Jesus Christ's knowledge than to God's saving grace (Mar_13:32; compare Joh_16:12, Joh_16:13). It is also noteworthy that in other respects, at least, Christ acquiesced in the view of the Holy Spirit which He found among His contemporaries.

Hitch
June 30th 2003, 10:19 PM
Baghwan Shree Rajneesh, aka God-Sir-God, spoke publicly from his chair to his followers and local television cameras. And from this position of authority and in full public view he stated with out qualification that Jesus had to have been insane.

Although I hated this antichrist bastard from the first time I ever saw him seeing this as it happened gave me the creeps. It 'S about as close as one came come to wha the Pharesees said that led to our Lord's wARNING,WITH OUT A QUOTE.


www.theflow.org/tonglen/ osho.jpg

I reckon that slimey grin has been replaced with the horrors of understanding eternity out side the Covering. Fear ,anguish ,pain and hoplessness that will never be relieved.

Take care

Hitch

Ray Watson
July 2nd 2003, 12:51 PM
Johnny: Sorry been away for a few days. I will try and answer your last question you posted: Do you believe that everyone who is saved necessarily has the Holy Spirit? I don't think that they necessarily have the Holy Spirit because there was a time when I was "saved"
The scripture is very plain on this issue. If we are a truly saved person then we are the temple of God and we have the Holy Spirit within this temple that seals, baptise, amd circumcises us (I Cor 3:16; I Cor 12:13; Eph 1:13; Eph 4:30; Col 2:11). If we do not have the Holy Spirit then we are still lost and we are none of His. Rom 8:9 But ye are not in the flesh, but in the Spirit, if so be that the Spirit of God dwell in you. Now if any man have not the Spirit of Christ, he is none of his. www.graceagechurch.com

Grace and Peace

Ray