The Hypostatic Union

[Lady Gooner]

Hope this is the right place to ask this ~ i'm just easing myself in here and rather than enter the cut and thrust of debate .... well could someone in simple plain english explain The Hypostatic Union in all its fine detail

1) what is it ?

2) How does it effect the understanding of temporal and eternal (with respect to God / Christ) ?

3) In what way if any does it affect the impecability of Christ's atonement for sin?

thank you

[Darth Executor]

[FONT=Comic Sans MS]Hope this is the right place to ask this ~ i'm just easing myself in here and rather than enter the cut and thrust of debate .... well could someone in simple plain english explain The Hypostatic Union in all its fine detail

1) what is it ?

Like the description says, the union of Jesus's human and divine natures. Think of it this way. Assume two universes: ours and heaven. We exist within both. We have bodies within both. We are only aware of our universe (our other body is void of any senses). In Jesus's case, His body in heaven is a part of God. You can think of Jesus as God's hand (although a non-physical attribute like Wisdom is more accurate)

2) How does it effect the understanding of temporal and eternal (with respect to God / Christ) ?

Can you clarify?

3) In what way if any does it affect the impecability of Christ's atonement for sin?


It doesn't.

[Lady Gooner]

How does it effect the understanding of temporal and eternal (with respect to God / Christ) ?

Can you clarify?


Sure :huh: ok easier said than done, i'm a woman of many words mostly drivel but i'll try as best I can....

The hypostatic union if I understand you right is the union of the two natures (Divine and human) in the person of Jesus. He is fully God and fully man.


When Jesus died on the cross, I think of God (the father) turning his head away from the son rather like an eclipse with our sin blocking the Light of the Father from the Son.

But back to the point ....did the natures seperate? If yes, did He give up His divine nature? If so did He break the eternity of the Godhead ? If no doesn't it affect the impeccability of his atonement


whew that was far too cerebral for me I need some R&R

[National Intelligence Director Phoenix]

Hello there M'lady! Thanks for your question! Let's see if we can get an answer?

Hope this is the right place to ask this ~ i'm just easing myself in here and rather than enter the cut and thrust of debate .... well could someone in simple plain english explain The Hypostatic Union in all its fine detail

1) what is it ?

THis is simply the saying that Christ has two natures. A divine and a human and they are at work in the same person. The orthodox view of Jesus is as follows.

Council of Nicea-Fully God.
Council of Constantinople-Fully Human
Council of Ephesus-One person
Council of Chalcedon-Two natures.

2) How does it effect the understanding of temporal and eternal (with respect to God / Christ) ?

I'm not sure entirely what you mean, but I'm gonna take a shot.

The eternal nature of Jesus has always existed. He has always been fully God. (John 1:1)

The human nature of Jesus has not always been. The Word BECAME flesh. (John 1:14) Jesus is eternal. The body of Jesus is not.

3) In what way if any does it affect the impecability of Christ's atonement for sin?

Christ had to be fully God because only God could pay the price for us, but he had to be fully human in order to face all that we would face and bear our burdens. He lived the sinless life that we cannot and in Christ, our sins are placed on him and we get his sinlessness in return. If you haven't received this yourself, which I hope you have of course already, today would be a good day to do so. If you have, then glad to have you in the family.

thank you

Thank you for the question.