View Full Version : II Timothy 3:16
Nanny
September 7th 2005, 01:59 PM
"all Scripture is God-breathed".... Is Paul referring here to the O.T. scriptures? and would you please give me your rational. I may be wrong but I think there's the idea that the N.T. and particularly the "red letters" are more authoritative than the O.T. Going into a study on Deut., I'd like to clarify. Thanks to all.
National Intelligence Director Phoenix
September 8th 2005, 12:58 AM
"all Scripture is God-breathed".... Is Paul referring here to the O.T. scriptures? and would you please give me your rational. I may be wrong but I think there's the idea that the N.T. and particularly the "red letters" are more authoritative than the O.T. Going into a study on Deut., I'd like to clarify. Thanks to all.
Yes Nanny. The rational is that the word used is often used for the Scriptures. In fact, Timothy is said to have known them from birth and was raised the son of a Jewish lady. The first thought would have been the OT letters.
By the way, there's no such idea as one verse being more authoritative than another. All of God's Word is equally true. Different parts of the Bible help interpret other parts, but when Scripture speaks, it is equally true. (This excluding of course obvious things like lies of Satan for instance.)
Anoetos
September 8th 2005, 11:32 AM
Paul had in mind the OT but what he said was in reference to Scripture as Scripture; i.e. if it's Scripture, it has the properties he is attributing to it.
Therefore, the passage refers to the nature of Scripture rather than to it's extent.
Therefore the NT is covered under the terms of 2 Tim. 3.
Nanny
September 8th 2005, 10:52 PM
Yes Nanny. The rational is that the word used is often used for the Scriptures. In fact, Timothy is said to have known them from birth and was raised the son of a Jewish lady. The first thought would have been the OT letters.
By the way, there's no such idea as one verse being more authoritative than another. All of God's Word is equally true. Different parts of the Bible help interpret other parts, but when Scripture speaks, it is equally true. (This excluding of course obvious things like lies of Satan for instance.)
Thanks for the confirmation and good point, it had to be O.T. since Timothy was taught them during his youth. So obvious, why didn't I come up with that? :blush: And I agree, of course, that all scripture is inspired and equally authoritative. I guess one could say that some passages are more important than others, don't you think?
Nanny
September 10th 2005, 09:10 AM
Paul had in mind the OT but what he said was in reference to Scripture as Scripture; i.e. if it's Scripture, it has the properties he is attributing to it.
Therefore, the passage refers to the nature of Scripture rather than to it's extent.
Therefore the NT is covered under the terms of 2 Tim. 3.
Excellent, Anoetos! I appreciate it. :smile:
National Intelligence Director Phoenix
September 14th 2005, 01:49 PM
Thanks for the confirmation and good point, it had to be O.T. since Timothy was taught them during his youth. So obvious, why didn't I come up with that? :blush: And I agree, of course, that all scripture is inspired and equally authoritative. I guess one could say that some passages are more important than others, don't you think?
It'd really depend on what you're wanting to teach at the time. We all have favorite verses for certain times and situations. I can also understand though when someone like Martin Luther refers to John 3:16 as the gospel in minitaure.
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