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Menachem
January 11th 2006, 04:16 PM
I know that this subject was covered in many other threads and in many of the cases it degraded into a shouting match on who's right and who's wrong sort of thing.

So I will ask the question with all due respect: Was the NT originally written in Aramaic or Greek? If one or the other, give evidence to support your assertions of either language. I appreciate your answers so that it may help me to understand such a "touchy" subject as this one.

Shalom

Jaltus
January 11th 2006, 05:24 PM
Realistically, all of the manuscript and historical evidence points directly to the NT being written in Greek, with the possible exceptions of:

Matthew (or any early draft)
Mark (likely an early draft)
Possibly one or two of Paul's letters (though unlikely considering the audience)
Revelation (the language is very strange, though likely it harkens back to the LXX or OG rather than Aramaic)

Scholarly consensus is extremely widespread with nearly every ideology sharing this perspective.

Those that do not, however, all tend to be those who want the Peshetta (I believe that is what it is) given priority over the Greek text. This is an extremely small group, and the original reasons were dogmatic rather than textual.

National Intelligence Director Phoenix
January 11th 2006, 05:27 PM
I'd concur with Jaltus. I will say though that there are supposedly some sayings that are playing on words in the text that if you changed a word in Greek to Aramaic, you can see some implications. Overall, Jaltus said what I would say and a lot more.