Did God commit Genocide ?

[jason]

Hi,

I think I have the right forum for this.

Now I have heard the word genocide bandied around a lot in conjunction with God's order to destroy the amelikites and the caininites.

Now leaving aside the obvious problems with describing it as genocide (eg the permission for such groups to immigrate, the group being judged where not internal population etc) could it even be described as such ?

It strikes me that it could not have been by virtue of God's omnipotence. If he had wished to commit genocide then, by definition, an omnipotent being would have succeeded in doing such a thing.

Yet clearly God's "will" to commit "genocide" in this case was frustrated, if that was his intention. Which is not actually possible.

What do you think ?

Or am I just rambling mindlessly ?

Jason

[Pilgrim]

You make a valid point. If God had intended to wipe out an entire people group he could have and would have.

I suppose the next logical question is from what position do we stand in judgement of God even if God commits genocide in totality? In other words, do we have a position to stand on to judge such actions at all?

[jason]

I suppose the next logical question is from what position do we stand in judgement of God even if God commits genocide in totality? In other words, do we have a position to stand on to judge such actions at all?
Good point. I am not sure we could. It seems altogether impossible to second guess the actions of an omniscient being, pretty much by definition. You could never possibly understand the ramifications of a course of actions suitably.

It seems odd to think of God as the one being anywhere who can actually be a utilitarian.

Jason