I've been reading Peterson's The Message and came upon the passage where Jesus teaches that one remarrying after divorce commits adultery. Peterson's paraphrase (I've read that it's a translation but I'm not certain) specifies that it's divorcing so that the leaving spouse can marry another that causes the adultery. That actually makes good sense but is it correct?
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Divorce and Adultery
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Divorce and Adultery
"He is no fool who gives what he cannot keep to gain that which he cannot lose." - Jim Elliot
"Forgiveness is the way of love." Gary Chapman
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I wasn't asking for a critique of the whole book - and it has some merit as a paraphrase. I wouldn't teach from it but there are a lot of translations that I wouldn't teach from.
My question is whether or not Peterson is correct here, or if the thing has merit at all."He is no fool who gives what he cannot keep to gain that which he cannot lose." - Jim Elliot
"Forgiveness is the way of love." Gary Chapman
My Personal Blog
My Novella blog (Current Novella Begins on 7/25/14)
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And He said to them, "Whoever divorces his wife and marries another woman commits adultery against her; and if she herself divorces her husband and marries another man, she is committing adultery." -- Mark 10:11-12. NASB. . . the gospel of Christ: for it is the power of God unto salvation to every one that believeth; . . . -- Romans 1:16 KJV
. . . that Christ died for our sins according to the scriptures; And that he was buried, and that he rose again the third day according to the scriptures: . . . -- 1 Corinthians 15:3-4 KJV
Whosoever believeth that Jesus is the Christ is born of God: . . . -- 1 John 5:1 KJV
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Thanks, Bible."He is no fool who gives what he cannot keep to gain that which he cannot lose." - Jim Elliot
"Forgiveness is the way of love." Gary Chapman
My Personal Blog
My Novella blog (Current Novella Begins on 7/25/14)
Quill Sword
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The Message is a paraphrase, not a translation... and frankly, it is frequently a paraphrase of Peterson's personal views. Notice how he paraphrases 1 Corinthians 6:9-11 to remove any mention of homosexuality. A more productive route would be to see what scholars have written about these verses."I am not angered that the Moral Majority boys campaign against abortion. I am angry when the same men who say, "Save OUR children" bellow "Build more and bigger bombers." That's right! Blast the children in other nations into eternity, or limbless misery as they lay crippled from "OUR" bombers! This does not jell." - Leonard Ravenhill
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It would make more sense yes if you left your spouse, divorced, however it leaves several exceptions. And of course Paul elaborates on this. Matthew adds the qualifier except for marital unfaithfulness. Peterson's paraphrase is likely correct, but he left out the scholarship that comes to that conclusion. Obviously have lived through a marriage where my spouse was emotionally abusive and unfaithful and having him demand the divorce, I'm partial to the idea that being remarried after the spouse was already unfaithful is ok.A happy family is but an earlier heaven.
George Bernard Shaw
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I'd agree if it were a matter of study, but I am merely reading. I came across the passage and wondered about it."He is no fool who gives what he cannot keep to gain that which he cannot lose." - Jim Elliot
"Forgiveness is the way of love." Gary Chapman
My Personal Blog
My Novella blog (Current Novella Begins on 7/25/14)
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Originally posted by Teallaura View PostI've been reading Peterson's The Message
That actually makes good sense
On a related note just as it is amusing to see Western Christians trying to force Scripture to fit in with progressive ideas of homosexuality (eg. Matthew Vines with his 'truly loving homosexual relationships are okay') it's also quite entertaining to see Western Christians invent justifications for divorce out of thin air (eg. 'emotional abuse') or take advantage of loopholes (some Catholics claim that the sacramental marriage actually never happened).
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This is what Malina and Rohrbaugh say in their Social-Science Commentary on the Synoptic Gospels
First some background on the passage:
And now to the passage in question:
So...that's one take on the passage that sounds like it lines up with Peterson's paraphrase.
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Haven't read the book, but it sounds rather forced, as if Malina and Rohrbaugh are eisegeting in a 'standard Mediterranean view', which is problematic not least because contextually Jesus is trying to overturn standard and social norms:
Originally posted by Adrift View PostGiven first-century understandings of adultery, that makes sense. Such behavior dishonors the husband...Adultery means to dishonor a male by having sexual relations with his wife. Take this definition quite literally.
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Originally posted by Adrift View PostThis is what Malina and Rohrbaugh say in their Social-Science Commentary on the Synoptic Gospels
First some background on the passage:
And now to the passage in question:
So...that's one take on the passage that sounds like it lines up with Peterson's paraphrase.
And He said to them, "Whoever divorces his wife and marries another woman commits adultery against her; and if she herself divorces her husband and marries another man, she is committing adultery." -- Mark 10:11-12. NASB
Jesus is saying the opposite of what the culture said (and hardly for the first time). A man can commit adultery against his wife. It's the adulterous intent that seems to be in focus in Peterson's paraphrase as well as to an extent in the cultural review you provided.
In answer to Pep's question, that was the part that makes more sense to me than merely marriage/remarriage. I never 'got' why an innocent spouse should have to remain single after a spouse refused to stay."He is no fool who gives what he cannot keep to gain that which he cannot lose." - Jim Elliot
"Forgiveness is the way of love." Gary Chapman
My Personal Blog
My Novella blog (Current Novella Begins on 7/25/14)
Quill Sword
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In the same book, in their commentary on the mirror passage in Matthew 19:9, Rohrbaugh and Malina repeat their previous statements, and add:
If the accusation of adultery relates back to the divorcing husband or the the divorced wife, then the sentence would be a parable -- something more or other than the obvious meaning is meant by the scenario of divorce in order to remarry.
Perhaps closer to your own view is Ben Witherington III's, in his commentary on Mark:
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Originally posted by Adrift View PostIn the same book, in their commentary on the mirror passage in Matthew 19:9, Rohrbaugh and Malina repeat their previous statements, and add:
If the accusation of adultery relates back to the divorcing husband or the the divorced wife, then the sentence would be a parable -- something more or other than the obvious meaning is meant by the scenario of divorce in order to remarry.
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Originally posted by Teallaura View PostIn answer to Pep's question, that was the part that makes more sense to me than merely marriage/remarriage. I never 'got' why an innocent spouse should have to remain single after a spouse refused to stay.
Jesus seems to assume that the first one-flesh union is still in force even after the divorce, hence the second marriage is seen as an act of adultery
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