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jimmybob479
November 19th 2006, 02:08 PM
I'm sure this question has been posted before, but I couldn't seem to find it using the search feature.

Anyway, what is the response when someone brings up Jesus being omniscient and the texts about Jesus not knowing who touched him when he felt power leaving him (Mary Madeline ?) and him not knowing when the father is coming back?

Shadow Phoenix
November 20th 2006, 10:30 AM
Hi Jimmybob! Thanks for your question!

In Christian doctrine, Jesus was fully God and fully human. However, when we read Philippians 2, we read that he emptied himself. What does this mean? The kenotic heresy states that he gave up his deity. This I cannot agree with as he made statements of deity on Earth and did signs of deity knowing things he could not know in some cases. (He saw Nathaniel under the fig tree for instance.)

The answer I would say is that Jesus gave up a sort of prerogative to use deity for his own gain. Even this is still a bit incomplete, but quite close. I would suggest reading JPH's article on Wisdom theology.

Hope this helps!

themuzicman
November 20th 2006, 10:32 AM
A better way to put it is that Jesus veiled Himself from Him Omni-abilities. Choose not to use them.

What Jesus emptied Himself of was the glory of God.

Michael

jimmybob479
November 21st 2006, 01:06 AM
thank you for your responses!

xine
March 10th 2007, 03:59 PM
Do you think Jesus was born knowing everything? Did he develope human memory like a normal human, or did he remember his own birth?

Shadow Phoenix
March 12th 2007, 10:59 AM
Do you think Jesus was born knowing everything? Did he develope human memory like a normal human, or did he remember his own birth?

The answer is that in his humanity, he did grow in wisdom and knowledge. In his deity though, he was omniscient. The Philippians 2 passage would indicate something along the lines of Jesus surrendering free-reign of his omni-abilities. Yeah. It's still a mystery how this was done, but he was fully God and fully man.