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Christ the Conqueror of Hell

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  • Christ the Conqueror of Hell

    I came across this article by Bishop Hilarion Alfeyev today. It takes as its main point the interpretation of 1 Peter 3:18-21. I think it neatly encapsulates much of how East and West tend to think differently. While it mostly refers to Western Catholic tradition, Protestant (especially Reformed) teaching is much closer to Rome than Constantinople on the soteriological impact of this issue. I encourage you to read the whole article; what I could quote here doesn't capture its essence.

    Source: The Descent of Christ into Hades in Eastern and Western Theological Traditions

    The Byzantine and old Russian icons of the Resurrection of Christ never depict the resurrection itself, i.e., Christ coming out of the grave. They rather depict ‘the descent of Christ into Hades’, or to be more precise, the rising of Christ out of hell. Christ, sometimes with a cross in his hand, is represented as raising Adam, Eve and other personages of the biblical history from hell. Under the Saviour’s feet is the black abyss of the nether world; against its background are castles, locks and debris of the gates which once barred the way of the dead to resurrection. Though other motifs have also been used in creating the image of the Resurrection of Christ in the last several centuries, the above-described iconographic type is considered to be canonical, as it reflects the traditional teaching on the descent of Christ to hell, His victory over death, His raising of the dead and delivering them from hell where they were imprisoned before His Resurrection. It is to this teaching as an integral part of the dogmatic and liturgical tradition of the Christian Church that this paper is devoted.

    The descent of Christ into Hades is one of the most mysterious, enigmatic and inexplicable events in New Testament history. In today’s Christian world, this event is understood differently. Liberal Western theology rejects altogether any possibility for speaking of the descent of Christ into Hades literally, arguing that the scriptural texts on this theme should be understood metaphorically. The traditional Catholic doctrine insists that after His death on the cross Christ descended to hell only to deliver the Old Testament righteous from it. A similar understanding is quite widespread among Orthodox Christians.

    On the other hand, the New Testament speaks of the preaching of Christ in hell as addressed to the unrepentant sinners: ‘For Christ also died for sins once for all, the righteous for the unrighteous, that he might bring us to God, being put to death in the flesh but made alive in the spirit; in which he went and preached to the spirit in prison, who formerly did not obey, when God’s patience waited’. However, many Church Fathers and liturgical texts of the Orthodox Church repeatedly underline that having descended to hell, Christ opened the way to salvation for all people, not only the Old Testament righteous. The descent of Christ into Hades is perceived as an event of cosmic significance involving all people without exception.
    <....>
    In the first three centuries of the Christian Church, there was considerable similarity between the interpretation of this doctrine by theologians in East and West. However, already by the 4th—5th centuries, substantial differences can be identified. In the West, a juridical understanding of the doctrine prevailed. It gave increasingly more weight to notions of predestination (Christ delivered from hell those who were predestined for salvation from the beginning) and original sin (salvation given by Christ was deliverance from the general original sin, not from the ‘personal’ sins of individuals). The range of those to whom the saving action of the descent into hell is extended becomes ever more narrow. First, it excludes sinners doomed to eternal torment, then those in purgatory and finally unbaptized infants. This kind of legalism was alien to the Orthodox East, where the descent into Hades continued to be perceived in the spirit in which it is expressed in the liturgical texts of Great Friday and Easter, i.e. as an event significant not only for all people, but also for the entire cosmos, for all created life.

    At the same time, both Eastern and Western traditions suggest that Christ delivered from hell the Old Testament righteous led by Adam. Yet if in the West this is perceived restrictively (Christ delivered only the Old Testament righteous, while leaving all the rest in hell to eternal torment), in the East, Adam is viewed as a symbol of the entire human race leading humanity redeemed by Christ (those who followed Christ were first the Old Testament righteous led by Adam and then the rest who responded to the preaching of Christ in hell).

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  • #2
    if I can be permitted to engage in the customary flippancy of this forum, I am reminded of the absurd article Salon published earlier this year about Christ's descent into Hell being some sort of dirty secret: http://www.salon.com/2015/04/09/jesu...ledge_partner/

    more seriously (and still without reading the whole article in the link), the bit about Western legalism and predestination intrigues me, because I've heard more than once that western Christianity was influenced in certain ways by Roman legal thought and argumentation-- not in that doctrines themselves stemmed from it, but the metaphors and explanations for ideas are connected to the Roman legal system. In a course I took on early Christian art, I remember seeing some mosaics in which the saints were depicted or otherwise understood as being something like a legal advocate or witness in God's court. This was all a few years ago, and it's still tangential to your point, but what I'd like to get at is that a legal understanding is a bare-bones understanding, and legally-attuned minds would focus a bit more on what Christ's descent to the dead accomplished from a more pragmatic standpoint-- that is, in the end, it was a narrow category that was brought into the fullness of salvation, and the ways of thinking connected with Roman law would lead the West to focus on that element rather than anything else.

    So what the above means is that I don't disagree with that passage from the article, and I can understand why he skims over it, but I'm trying to explore a point that intrigues me.
    Don't call it a comeback. It's a riposte.

    Comment


    • #3
      In his story of Lazarus and the rich man, in Luke 16:19-31, Jesus described the conditions that existed in Hades before his death and resurrection. Both Lazarus and the rich man ended up in Hades but were is different parts. This shows that the separation of the righteous and the wicked had already taken place and it is the righteous who were taken to Heaven after the death of Christ. If you think this was just a parable, I suggest that you read this:

      https://clydeherrin.wordpress.com/20...-actual-event/
      The brutal, soul-shaking truth is that we are so earthly minded we are of no heavenly use.
      Leonard Ravenhill

      https://clydeherrin.wordpress.com/

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      • #4
        One Bad Pig gave me permission to post the following here. [Thank You OBP!]

        The article presents the views blurred. How do they differ? literal versus metaphorical? We know Jesus descended into Hades (the ref Acts 2:27 is not cited) in that His Soul did not remain there. Augustine rejects Abraham's bosom being in Hades. Where Jesus taught Abraham was there (Luke 16:23) and how Abraham said otherwise (Luke 16:29, 31 Moses: Deuteronomy 32:22 and the prophets: one being David: Psalm 86:13). Virtually no one [commentaries etc] cites Deuteronomy 32:22 two compartments of Sheol/Hades is being presented. Also 1 Peter 4:6 is not cited and Ephesians 4:8-10 is not cited.

        My comments aside: If you had to list the views presented in the article, how would you list them and categorize them. How are they the same and how are they different?
        . . . the gospel of Christ: for it is the power of God unto salvation to every one that believeth; . . . -- Romans 1:16 KJV

        . . . that Christ died for our sins according to the scriptures; And that he was buried, and that he rose again the third day according to the scriptures: . . . -- 1 Corinthians 15:3-4 KJV

        Whosoever believeth that Jesus is the Christ is born of God: . . . -- 1 John 5:1 KJV

        Comment


        • #5
          I think it's dubious to argue that Lazarus was in hell, anyway. It makes more sense to say that he was in heaven. He was in the same place as Abraham. The people in hell are always described as being dead. In Matthew 22:32, Jesus said that Abraham was alive.

          Comment


          • #6
            Originally posted by Obsidian View Post
            I think it's dubious to argue that Lazarus was in hell, anyway. It makes more sense to say that he was in heaven. He was in the same place as Abraham. The people in hell are always described as being dead. In Matthew 22:32, Jesus said that Abraham was alive.
            He was in "the place of departed spirits".
            The first to state his case seems right until another comes and cross-examines him.

            Comment


            • #7
              Until Jesus ascended into heaven ([Luke 23:43; Acts 2:27;] Acts 1:9-11; Ephesians 4:8-10) the upper compartment of Hades/Sheol was Paradise. Abraham speaks of Moses and the prophets (Luke 16:29, 31; - Deuteronomy 32:22; Psalm 86:13).
              . . . the gospel of Christ: for it is the power of God unto salvation to every one that believeth; . . . -- Romans 1:16 KJV

              . . . that Christ died for our sins according to the scriptures; And that he was buried, and that he rose again the third day according to the scriptures: . . . -- 1 Corinthians 15:3-4 KJV

              Whosoever believeth that Jesus is the Christ is born of God: . . . -- 1 John 5:1 KJV

              Comment


              • #8
                Deuteronomy 32:22 doesn't speak anything relevant. And unless you want to interpret it literally — which would make no sense given what we know of David's life — Psalm 86:13 doesn't either.

                Comment


                • #9
                  Originally posted by Obsidian View Post
                  Deuteronomy 32:22 doesn't speak anything relevant. And unless you want to interpret it literally — which would make no sense given what we know of David's life — Psalm 86:13 doesn't either.
                  Explain.

                  First off, a literal reading is required to get to any metaphor or figurative language. If the latter is meant. Support it.

                  What was Abraham (Luke 16:29, 31) referring to? Give the relevant passages in the writings of Moses and any of the prophets.

                  The rich man was in Hades below where Abraham was. ". . . he lift up his eyes, being in torments, and sees Abraham afar off . . . ."

                  Before Jesus died physically he said to one, "today you shall be with Me in paradise."
                  Peter cites the Psalm of David regarding Christ's resurrection, ". . . you will not leave my soul in Hades[Sheol] . . . ."
                  It is therefore my understanding Paradise was the upper compartment of Sheol.
                  . . . the gospel of Christ: for it is the power of God unto salvation to every one that believeth; . . . -- Romans 1:16 KJV

                  . . . that Christ died for our sins according to the scriptures; And that he was buried, and that he rose again the third day according to the scriptures: . . . -- 1 Corinthians 15:3-4 KJV

                  Whosoever believeth that Jesus is the Christ is born of God: . . . -- 1 John 5:1 KJV

                  Comment


                  • #10
                    So you think David was in hell before he wrote that psalm, but then got physically resurrected?

                    I think the comment to the thief on the cross was probably meant to say, "You will be with me in paradise, and I am telling you this today." The thief did not ask for paradise; he simply asked to be remembered. Jesus was telling him that he wouldn't need to be remembered and contemplated later, because the decision was already made, "today."

                    Another, alternative theory I've heard is that Jesus was simply referring to his deity and hence his "omnipresence." Even though Jesus was in hell, the thief would be with God in paradise.

                    I think the idea that Jesus himself was in paradise while atoning for the sins of the whole world is a little ridiculous.
                    Last edited by Obsidian; 12-10-2015, 10:34 PM.

                    Comment


                    • #11
                      Originally posted by Obsidian View Post
                      So you think David was in hell before he wrote that psalm, but then got physically resurrected?
                      As I said, David was one of the prophets Abraham was referring to. And you did not answer my question as to what Moses and the prophets wrote regarding that place of torment (Luke 16:29, 31).
                      . . . the gospel of Christ: for it is the power of God unto salvation to every one that believeth; . . . -- Romans 1:16 KJV

                      . . . that Christ died for our sins according to the scriptures; And that he was buried, and that he rose again the third day according to the scriptures: . . . -- 1 Corinthians 15:3-4 KJV

                      Whosoever believeth that Jesus is the Christ is born of God: . . . -- 1 John 5:1 KJV

                      Comment


                      • #12
                        It doesn't even say that that Moses wrote about the place of torment. But you already quoted a section from Moses where he mentions hell. So there you go.

                        Comment


                        • #13
                          Originally posted by Obsidian View Post
                          It doesn't even say that that Moses wrote about the place of torment. But you already quoted a section from Moses where he mentions hell. So there you go.
                          Abraham argued they have Moses and the prophets. If it is not written, then how? And you had argued the meaning was not to be understood literally. And I had asked you to explain.
                          . . . the gospel of Christ: for it is the power of God unto salvation to every one that believeth; . . . -- Romans 1:16 KJV

                          . . . that Christ died for our sins according to the scriptures; And that he was buried, and that he rose again the third day according to the scriptures: . . . -- 1 Corinthians 15:3-4 KJV

                          Whosoever believeth that Jesus is the Christ is born of God: . . . -- 1 John 5:1 KJV

                          Comment


                          • #14
                            The psalmist is either saying that his life was hellish and that God healed him, or he is saying that he was once unsaved and destined for hell and God redeemed him. He is absolutely not saying that he literally died and went to hell.

                            Really, this is not hard.

                            Comment


                            • #15
                              Originally posted by Obsidian View Post
                              The psalmist is either saying that his life was hellish and that God healed him, or he is saying that he was once unsaved and destined for hell and God redeemed him. He is absolutely not saying that he literally died and went to hell.

                              Really, this is not hard.
                              You were saying regarding what God told Moses, Deuteronomy 32:22 was not literal.
                              . . . the gospel of Christ: for it is the power of God unto salvation to every one that believeth; . . . -- Romans 1:16 KJV

                              . . . that Christ died for our sins according to the scriptures; And that he was buried, and that he rose again the third day according to the scriptures: . . . -- 1 Corinthians 15:3-4 KJV

                              Whosoever believeth that Jesus is the Christ is born of God: . . . -- 1 John 5:1 KJV

                              Comment

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