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AP930
June 6th 2007, 03:50 PM
Hey,

I have two questions:

First, in the book of John, Jesus was anointed prior to the his triumphant entry into Jerusalem (John 12). Luke's account agrees with this. But in the book of Matthew and Mark, the annointing at Bethany happens after the triumphant entry into Jerusalem.

In the book of John, Jesus drives out the merchants in the temple early on while the other three accounts say it happened during the week when Jesus was at Jerusalem.

I want to add that I believe in biblical inerrancy and that I believe that I may have overlooked some important information.

Thanks and God Bless!

National Intelligence Director Phoenix
June 9th 2007, 11:41 AM
Hey,

I have two questions:

First, in the book of John, Jesus was anointed prior to the his triumphant entry into Jerusalem (John 12). Luke's account agrees with this. But in the book of Matthew and Mark, the annointing at Bethany happens after the triumphant entry into Jerusalem.

In the book of John, Jesus drives out the merchants in the temple early on while the other three accounts say it happened during the week when Jesus was at Jerusalem.

I want to add that I believe in biblical inerrancy and that I believe that I may have overlooked some important information.

Thanks and God Bless!

Hello AP. Thanks for the question.

Ironically, I had a friend who once gave up inerrancy based on the anointing passage, which I find ironic because it's quite simple to answer.

The accounts are of two different women. This happened twice and it really shouldn't surprise us that this could be more common than we realize.

As for the John issue, some say that this could be a non-chronological account. Chronology did not always matter as much to the ancients as it does to us. However, some, and I agree with them, state that there were two cleansings of the temple.

Hope this helps!

AP930
July 9th 2007, 06:30 PM
God is omnipresent. Hell is separation from God so does that mean God is not present in Hell? If he isn't then how is he omnipresent. Thanks in advance!

God Bless

National Intelligence Director Phoenix
July 10th 2007, 10:55 PM
God is omnipresent. Hell is separation from God so does that mean God is not present in Hell? If he isn't then how is he omnipresent. Thanks in advance!

God Bless

Let's look and see.

I think separation from God means relational separation. You are cut off from being the beneficiary of such a relationship. It could also be that the love of God is interpreted by people in Hell as the wrath of God. They are so opposed to it that they can only view it as wrath. Having God present does not mean that God is manifestly present. God was in the temple before he came in the cloud, but he was manifest at that time.

Hope this helps!

AP930
July 14th 2007, 11:39 PM
What about Matthew 27:52-53? This sounds extraordinary so shouldn't it have some extrabiblical sources? Or wouldn't the apostles talk about this? The first few chapters of Acts and 1 Corinthians 'creed don't talk about this at all.

God Bless

National Intelligence Director Phoenix
July 20th 2007, 12:53 PM
What about Matthew 27:52-53? This sounds extraordinary so shouldn't it have some extrabiblical sources? Or wouldn't the apostles talk about this? The first few chapters of Acts and 1 Corinthians 'creed don't talk about this at all.

God Bless

This is another good question, but I believe there is good reason for them not mentioning it. In fact, we could say that other gospels contain miracles not in the others.

Matthew is the one that is writing to the thoroughly Jewish people of his time. A common prediction of the Messiah was that the dead would be raised at his coming. To those who were not familiar with this, it would be an interesting event, but the full significance would not be understood.

Also, why should there be extrabiblical sources? We don't know what happened to these dead exactly, though I suspect they were going to the place of Paradise and were seen as they went through Jerusalem. Thus, to anyone else, these would sound like tall tales made up and to be ignored. (The ancients, after all, were not superstitious.) Thoroughly Jewish readers would understand though.

Hope this helps!