Christian2
July 12th 2007, 01:47 PM
The religious leaders in Jesus' day tried to get Him convicted of blasphemy.
Could they have made the charge stick according to Jewish law in those days?
If not, why not?
If yes, on what grounds could they do it?
Leviticus 24:11
11. And the son of the Israelite woman pronounced the [Divine] Name and cursed. So they brought him to Moses. His mother's name was Shelomith the daughter of Dibri, of the tribe of Dan.
Commentary on this verse from a Hebrew online source:
blasphemously pronounced Heb. וַיִּקֹּב. As the Targum [Onkelos] renders: וּפָרֵישׁ, “and he pronounced”-he pronounced the ineffable Divine Name and cursed. This [Name that must not be pronounced] was the explicit [four-letter] Divine Name that this man had heard from [the revelation at Mount] Sinai. — [Torath Kohanim 24:235]
Leviticus 24:16
16. And one who blasphemously pronounces the Name of the Lord, shall be put to death; the entire community shall stone him; convert and resident alike if he pronounces the [Divine] Name, he shall be put to death.
Commentary from an online Hebrew source:
And one who blasphemously pronounces the Name [This teaches us that] one is not liable [to the death penalty] unless he pronounces the [four-letter Divine] Name. However, one who curses using an ancillary Name [for God, rather than the explicit, four-letter Name], is not [liable to the death penalty]. — [Torath Kohanim 24:243]
And one who blasphemously pronounces Heb. וְנֹקֵב. [This term] denotes cursing, as in, “What can I curse (אֶקֹּב) …?” (Num. 23:8). - [Sanh. 56a]
Could Jesus be charged with blasphemy based on these verses in Leviticus?
If so, how? On what evidence?
Thank you.
Could they have made the charge stick according to Jewish law in those days?
If not, why not?
If yes, on what grounds could they do it?
Leviticus 24:11
11. And the son of the Israelite woman pronounced the [Divine] Name and cursed. So they brought him to Moses. His mother's name was Shelomith the daughter of Dibri, of the tribe of Dan.
Commentary on this verse from a Hebrew online source:
blasphemously pronounced Heb. וַיִּקֹּב. As the Targum [Onkelos] renders: וּפָרֵישׁ, “and he pronounced”-he pronounced the ineffable Divine Name and cursed. This [Name that must not be pronounced] was the explicit [four-letter] Divine Name that this man had heard from [the revelation at Mount] Sinai. — [Torath Kohanim 24:235]
Leviticus 24:16
16. And one who blasphemously pronounces the Name of the Lord, shall be put to death; the entire community shall stone him; convert and resident alike if he pronounces the [Divine] Name, he shall be put to death.
Commentary from an online Hebrew source:
And one who blasphemously pronounces the Name [This teaches us that] one is not liable [to the death penalty] unless he pronounces the [four-letter Divine] Name. However, one who curses using an ancillary Name [for God, rather than the explicit, four-letter Name], is not [liable to the death penalty]. — [Torath Kohanim 24:243]
And one who blasphemously pronounces Heb. וְנֹקֵב. [This term] denotes cursing, as in, “What can I curse (אֶקֹּב) …?” (Num. 23:8). - [Sanh. 56a]
Could Jesus be charged with blasphemy based on these verses in Leviticus?
If so, how? On what evidence?
Thank you.