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This is where we come to delve into the biblical text. Theology is not our foremost thought, but we realize it is something that will be dealt with in nearly every conversation. Feel free to use the original languages to make your point (meaning Greek, Hebrew, and Aramaic). This is an exegetical discussion area, so please limit topics to purely biblical ones.

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Difference between adultery and fornication

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  • #1

    Difference between adultery and fornication

    I've been lead to believe that one is immorality between two unmarried, the other is cheating on one's spouse. Also, wondering what specific form of sexual immorality is used when Jesus is preaching the Sermon on the Mount (Matthew 5), as I've heard it argued from a close friend that Jesus isn't giving an exception here to divorce on grounds of immorality, but rather, just giving grounds to break off an engagement based off of infidelity (referencing Jewish custom at the time of engagement being just as binding as marriage).

    Thanks for the help in advance.
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  • #2
    There is very little evidence that Jesus's statement only applied to breaking off an engagement; very few scholars uphold the view.

    The word translated fornication is porneia and the word pops up throughout the New Testament in several different contexts. As scholar David Instone-Brewer writes:

    Source: http://divorceremarriage.blogspot.co...nceptions.html
    "I am not angered that the Moral Majority boys campaign against abortion. I am angry when the same men who say, "Save OUR children" bellow "Build more and bigger bombers." That's right! Blast the children in other nations into eternity, or limbless misery as they lay crippled from "OUR" bombers! This does not jell." - Leonard Ravenhill

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    • #3
      I would also like to add my question here repeated from the other thread, to see what John Reece or others say:

      Originally posted by JohnnyP View Post
      I wonder if adultery to God, such as becoming an idol-worshiper, could be extended here. Or if it is strictly limited to physical sex. Since the term seems to also be used for the Harlot of Babylon in relation to unfaithfulness to God:
      Revelation 17:2 With whom the kings of the earth have committed fornication, and the inhabitants of the earth have been made drunk with the wine of her fornication.

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      • #4
        Originally posted by JohnnyP View Post
        I would also like to add my question here repeated from the other thread, to see what John Reece or others say:
        I wonder if adultery to God, such as becoming an idol-worshiper, could be extended here. Or if it is strictly limited to physical sex. Since the term seems to also be used for the Harlot of Babylon in relation to unfaithfulness to God:
        Revelation 17:2 With whom the kings of the earth have committed fornication, and the inhabitants of the earth have been made drunk with the wine of her fornication.
        The Greek words in Revelation 17:2 are πορνεύω (verb) and πορνείαpractice image-worship/idolatryπορνεύω
        practice image-worship/idolatryπορνεία 3 and cp. Hos 9:1; Jer 3:6; Ezk 23:19; 1 Ch 5:25; Ps 72:27; En 8:2) Rv 17:2; 18:3, 9.
        Last edited by John Reece; 02-08-2014, 09:16 PM.

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        • #5
          Thank you Mr. Reece. I truly appreciate your knowledge and desire to help us since me being ignorant of original languages -- though I have made many false starts in trying to learn them -- I am sure I lumber and bluster around with many of my beliefs based only on the English translations. I just wanted to say you are a blessing to those who want to learn, and also to me who sometimes just wants to go with my own agenda even if it's wrong.

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          • #6
            Originally posted by JohnnyP View Post
            Thank you Mr. Reece. I truly appreciate your knowledge and desire to help us since me being ignorant of original languages -- though I have made many false starts in trying to learn them -- I am sure I lumber and bluster around with many of my beliefs based only on the English translations. I just wanted to say you are a blessing to those who want to learn, and also to me who sometimes just wants to go with my own agenda even if it's wrong.
            I very much appreciate your comment, JohnnyP; thank you!

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            • #7
              Originally posted by John Reece View Post
              [size=4][font=times new roman]

              The Greek words in Revelation 17:2 are πορνεύω (verb) and πορνείαpractice image-worship/idolatry

              Do you think Paul meant the same ( πορνεία as idol-worship) in Romans 1:22-23, Professing themselves to be wise, they became fools,
              And changed the glory of the uncorruptible God into the likeness of an image of a corruptible man, and to birds, and fourfooted beasts, and creeping things.
               ?

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              • #8
                Thanks you for the information. I'll see if I can't inform my friend of this.

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                • #9
                  Another question, if permissible. Again, thank you ahead of time for your insight on the languages:

                  My same friend argues that the context of 1 Corinthians 7:15-16 doesn't give grounds for divorce after abandonment. Specifically, he says that, because Paul still uses the term "husband" and "wife" in verse 16, he still acknowledges the abandoned as married, and simply wants them to live peacefully but not remarry. If not insight into the languages, any other insight into this verse? I'm also digging a little deeper into the link that KingsGambit has graciously provided. Again, thank ya'll for ya'lls help.
                  Last edited by Just Some Dude; 02-10-2014, 09:18 PM.

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                  • #10
                    Originally posted by Just Some Dude View Post
                    My same friend argues that the context of 1 Corinthians 7:15-16 doesn't give grounds for divorce after abandonment. Specifically, he says that, because Paul still uses the term "husband" and "wife" in verse 16, he still acknowledges the abandoned as married, and simply wants them to live peacefully but not remarry.
                    From The First Epistle to the Corinthians (NICNT: Eerdmans, 1987), by Gordon Fee (via Accordance):
                    15dede simply will not sustain that nuance. More likely, then, the structure of the paragraph is thus:
                    The ideal:.................... .....gar.........................* They are sanctified in you (14)
                    The exception:.......... de.........................* If they choose to leave, let it be so (15ab)
                    The reason (again):...de.........................* God has called us to peace (15c)
                    ................................ gar.........................* Perhaps you will yet save your spouse (16)
                    16

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                    • #11
                      The whole purpose of giving a bill of divorce was to allow the woman to remarry without getting in trouble.

                      Deuteronomy 20:1-2
                      When a man hath taken a wife, and married her, and it come to pass that she find no favour in his eyes, because he hath found some uncleanness in her: then let him write her a bill of divorcement, and give it in her hand, and send her out of his house. And when she is departed out of his house, she may go and be another man's wife.

                      Thus, it is ludicrous to say that a Christian wife should let a pagan abandon her unilaterally, and then be prevented from marrying another (Christian) man who might be able to care for her.

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