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    The bible does not say that The Word is Jesus,...

    The bible does not say that The Word is Jesus, bit that the Word MADE FLESH is Jesus. So the bible is “claiming” that.
  2. When “describing” the Lord as being God, the...

    When “describing” the Lord as being God, the bible uses the present tense even if the frame of reference is the past ( eg. “tin the beginning,” “before the earth was,” etc.)
  3. καὶ θεὸς ἦν ὁ λόγος.

    καὶ θεὸς ἦν ὁ λόγος.

    The imperfect or "past" tense ἦν is problematic if one wishes to argue that θεὸς here is a reference to God (as in the Almighty). In Scripture even when a past time frame is...
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    Notice though that the text says the Word was a...

    Notice though that the text says the Word was a divine something , not that Jesus was God. Big difference. The Word prior to becoming flesh (i.e. a human being) is not Jesus. Remember, the Jesus of...
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    That's an odd thing to say, especially underlined...

    That's an odd thing to say, especially underlined above. Look at following example for instance --



    Matt. 2:15

    He was there for a specific period of time, and not for "everlasting."
  6. Who or what does "Him" mean in above ?

    Who or what does "Him" mean in above ?
  7. That is not "a part of my argument."..Still...

    That is not "a part of my argument."..Still don't see relevance.
  8. To answer the thread title, no. So for...

    To answer the thread title, no.



    So for instance look at Matthew 21:19 --



    The sense is not that the tree is going to last forever and be forever barren, but that it should never bear...
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    If words have meaning, that's tantamount to...

    If words have meaning, that's tantamount to saying that he is not human. In anycase, whenever scripture says that one human is "greater"or more "important" or "superior" etc. than another (or...
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    kal va-khomer (Argumentum a minori ad maius). In...

    kal va-khomer (Argumentum a minori ad maius). In other words the logic is as follows -- If the prophets are called gods, how much more I [the prophet par excellence, Deut. 18:15) am justified in...
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    Precisely. If the Jews were accusing Jesus of...

    Precisely.

    If the Jews were accusing Jesus of making himself the Almighty,
    he could not have quoted a verse where human beings are called "gods." In other words, if the Jews were accusing...
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    Don't see how that helps you ? It would then be...

    Don't see how that helps you ? It would then be that when scripture says to someone "you're a god" it just means that they are as a god.





    According to Jesus's interpretation, the "gods" of...
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    Well, all prophets die and then go to heaven. The...

    Well, all prophets die and then go to heaven. The prophets Moses and Elijah appeared to Jesus , did they not ?
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    You will be “in place of” God..In other words you...

    You will be “in place of” God..In other words you will represent God. Regardless, this issue is irrelevant to the point that at Exodus 7:1 Moses is said to be a god, not like / as a god. The term...
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    You have completely mis-understood and corrupted ...

    You have completely mis-understood and corrupted the psalm. Here is the Greek:





    Why would God stand in the midst of false Judges ? This picture here is of a Sovereign surrounded by His...
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    That (red) is not true. Here's the Septuagint...

    That (red) is not true. Here's the Septuagint LXX:



    Literally "Behold, I have made you a god to Pharaoh. " Had the text used the adjective ὡς ("as") then you would be right: "....ὡς θεὸν...
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    "Divine" is an adjective, you would have expected...

    "Divine" is an adjective, you would have expected θεῖος at John 1:1c if that were the case.

    A caveat: if by "divine" you have an indefinite sense in mind (as in "a divine thing/person") then...
  18. It is not wise to do that (red above). The...

    It is not wise to do that (red above). The definite article does not function in exactly the same way as the pronoun in Koine.
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    7Ἰδού, ἔρχεται μετὰ τῶν νεφελῶν καὶ ὄψεται αὐτὸν...

    7Ἰδού, ἔρχεται μετὰ τῶν νεφελῶν καὶ ὄψεται αὐτὸν πᾶς ὀφθαλμὸς καὶ οἵτινες αὐτὸν ἐξεκέντησαν καὶ κόψονται ἐπ' αὐτὸν πᾶσαι αἱ φυλαὶ τῆς γῆς ναί ἀμήν (Jesus)

    8Ἐγώ εἰμι τὸ Α καὶ τὸ Ω ἀρχὴ καὶ τέλος,...
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    (1) The point is that even in Heaven Jesus is...

    (1) The point is that even in Heaven Jesus is given revelation from God, which means that even there he is not omniscient, which IMHO is pretty strong evidence that the apostle did not consider him...
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    I notice that most Trinitarian commentaries...

    I notice that most Trinitarian commentaries either skip this clause or else say something as follows:

    Benson Commentary:




    What exactly does that mean ? He was already in heaven . Even ...
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    That is a straight-out contradiction of what the...

    That is a straight-out contradiction of what the apostle wrote: ἣν ἔδωκεν αὐτῷ ὁ Θεός, "which [Revelation] God gave to him ."

    ----

    Ἀποκάλυψις Ἰησοῦ Χριστοῦ, (A Revelation of Jesus Christ,), ...
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    Ἀποκάλυψις means "a Revelation" ἔδωκεν means...

    Ἀποκάλυψις means "a Revelation"

    ἔδωκεν means "He (God) gave"

    δεῖξαι means "to show"

    When someone is given a Revelation it means that they have received information which they formerly did...
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    Let's dissect the very first verse: (1)...

    Let's dissect the very first verse:




    (1) Here God (ὁ Θεός) is distinguished from Jesus . Now if the author was a Trinitarian and believed Jesus to also be ὁ Θεός , he would (at the very...
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    Greek readings of the bible,

    Let's present and discuss our Greek readings. I would like to start with the Book of Revelation. Here's Chapter 1 of a reading I made yesterday.
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