Whenever I read posts on the internet, either from reformers or non-reformed, inevitably all their points are made under the auspices of freewill. Even when denied, it is relied upon to render their posts valid and understandable. I now refuse to fall into the abyss that I see so many opponents fall into; clearly the bible expresses the position that God incited David: Still, knowing that God does deal with men individually from time, I find no reason/cause to see this as God establishing doctrinal positions that apply to all. Does that fact that God incited David mean that he incites me to do evil also?
The bible speaks specifically concerning man’s freewill, yet it never says that it does not exist. This position is left to personal exegesis. How can that which the bible concludes carry less weight than man’s personal exegesis of the bible...
1.Ezra 7:13
I make a decree, that all they of the people of Israel, and of his priests and Levites, in my realm, which are minded of their own freewill to go up to Jerusalem, go with thee.
Ezra 7:12-14 (in Context) Ezra 7 (Whole Chapter) Other Translations
The bible speaks specifically concerning man’s freewill, yet it never says that it does not exist. This position is left to personal exegesis. How can that which the bible concludes carry less weight than man’s personal exegesis of the bible...
1.Ezra 7:13
I make a decree, that all they of the people of Israel, and of his priests and Levites, in my realm, which are minded of their own freewill to go up to Jerusalem, go with thee.
Ezra 7:12-14 (in Context) Ezra 7 (Whole Chapter) Other Translations
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