JW Question

[IncRus]

This was my reply to faithymom's post which is exactly like yours:

I am NOT denying that "all scripture is God-breathed...." but scripturtes are useful ONLY for those to whom the scripture is addressed. Heb. 1:1-2 are ALSO "God-breathed."

Therefore, in the study of the scriptures, Heb. 1:1-2 MUST be considered too in order for scriptures to be "useful for teaching, rebuking, correcting and training in righteousness, so that the man of God [b](in these last days - Heb. 1:2)[.b] may be thoroughly equipped for every good work."

The OT is for OUR instruction. That's not my opinion, that is Scripture. Rom 15:4.

Examples: 1 Cor 9:9,10; Heb 12:5,6. If you still don't agree with the Bible, too bad, but it is plain as day that OT was for all of us, for our instuction. In fact, Jesus quoted from the Heb Scrip and instructed his disciples out of it. Are you not his disciple?

Rom. 15:4 says: "For whatever things were written BEFORE were written for our learning, that we through the patience and comfort of the Scriptures might have hope."

It's true that when Paul WROTE this to the Roman Christians, he was referring to the Old Testament which, at that time, was the ONLY Scriptures the Christians recognized and accepted.

However, since the Scriptures as we know them TODAY is found in BOTH the Old and New Testament, and since these were written BEFORE our time in these last days, then BOTH the OT and the NT are Scriptures that were written BEFORE for our LEARNING.

Therefore, where the Old Testament is AMENDED by the New Testament, the Old Testament becomes OBSOLETE, just like any LAW that we have TODAY. A LAW that was passed in 1900 is NO LONGER enforceable where it ws AMENDED by a LAW in 2000.

Heb. 1:1-2 becomes for us, a GUIDE in the study of the Scriptures.

QUOTE=jahrule84;2575652]All this bit about who it is addressed to is a straw man; does Genesis need to have a intro saying "to all the Christians in the world" for you to accept that a man should stick to his wife, and become one flesh? Gen 2:24.

Heck, Luke did not address his Gospel to anyone else but Theoplilus, so by ur standards, I guess you don't obey the instruction found therein; huh? Ps 83:18; Isa 12:2,4 do not need to bear your name to be for ur instruction![/QUOTE]

As I stated above, although the New Testament was written more than a thousand years ago, it ALSO applies to US in these last days because it reflects God's commands to US which He spoke through His Son, which he passed on to his apostles. Therefore, what Luke wrote to Theoplilus ALSO applies to US in these last days (Heb. 1:1-2).

As I showed you before, Exo 3:15 says that Jehovah [Yahweh] is his name and memorial FOREVER, for generation after generation. That includes us. Either it includes us, or God is lying!

Don't know how much more plain I can make it.

What Jesus said and what the apostles wrote AMENDED what God said to our fathers by the prophets (JHeb. 1:1-2).

[jahrule84]

So your excuse is that the NT amends the OT? Sure, it amends the law of Moses, anything else? Where does the NT say that it amends God's name Jehovah?

And if the OT promises that this is his name and memorial FOR EVER, for GENREATION AFTER GENERATION, Ex 3:15, the NT cannot change that, otherwise, God was lying! When he said FOREVER, he meant it!

You use Heb 1:1,2 toargue that because Luke's info was passed on to us by Jesus from God, that it is for us. But it was this same God who directly told us that BOTH OT and NT are for our instuction, Rom 15:4; 2 Tim 3:16. So do you only listen when Jesus is mediating info, or do u also listen when it comes direct from the Almighty?

Rom 15:4 ORIGINALLY refered to OT; wheather enough time has passed for the NT to be considered the things written BEFORE, is irrelevant! Scripture must not be taken out of context of the times, culture, etc, otherwise they loose their true meaning! Yes, you can learn principles from it, just as the obsolete law of Moses still teaches us vital principles. But you don't claim that the meaning of what God said has changes over time!

God is the only one with the authority to change the meaningof his statements, not us. And no amount of time that passes will stop Ps 83:18 from being true until God says so! Where does the NT say that we should no longer use the name Jehovah? For that matter, if OT is so outdated, why should we read Esther? Esther is not restated in the NT, so should we exclude it from our Bible reading?

When u appreciate thev aluce of ALL Scripture, you will fare better.

btw, the bk of Revelation says, Hallelujah, meaning, praise Jah; praise Jehovah! Again, his name is still a NT reality; which u rtrying to destroy. Rev 19:1

The NT does not repeat that man and woman must become ONE FLESH Gen 2:24. So has this relationship been abolished?

[Cowthulu]

The NT does not repeat that man and woman must become ONE FLESH Gen 2:24. So has this relationship been abolished?

It doesn't?

Mark 10:5-9

5"It was because your hearts were hard that Moses wrote you this law," Jesus replied. 6"But at the beginning of creation God 'made them male and female.'[a] 7'For this reason a man will leave his father and mother and be united to his wife,[b] 8and the two will become one flesh.'[c] So they are no longer two, but one. 9Therefore what God has joined together, let man not separate."

[IncRus]

So your excuse is that the NT amends the OT? Sure, it amends the law of Moses, anything else? Where does the NT say that it amends God's name Jehovah?

In Jesus' prayer to the Father (John 17:1), Jesus asked the Father to safeguard his disciples BY His NAME, the NAME that He has GIVEN him" (John 17:11-12 TEV).

These verses teach us that God has a NAME. And this NAME is the NAME that God GAVE Jesus (Phil. 2:9). If God's NAME is Jehovah, and this is the NAME that God GAVE Jesus, then Jesus should have been called Jesus Jehovah by the apostles.

However, we know that the apostles NEVER called Jesus, Jehovah, or Jesus Jehovah, or Jehovah Jesus. Instead, the apostles called Jesus, Christ, Jesus Christ, or Christ Jesus.

Why is this so? Because according to apostle Peter, God MADE Jesus BOTH Lord and CHRIST (Acts 2:36).

Therefore, the NAME of God that God GAVE to Jesus is - CHRIST.

And if the OT promises that this is his name and memorial FOR EVER, for GENREATION AFTER GENERATION, Ex 3:15, the NT cannot change that, otherwise, God was lying! When he said FOREVER, he meant it!

God addressed this to the Israelites whom Jesus led out of Egypt - NOT to Christians. To these people, God is "Jehovah forever, for generation after generation." Unfortunately, these people have CEASED to be God's people.

You use Heb 1:1,2 to argue that because Luke's info was passed on to us by Jesus from God, that it is for us. But it was this same God who directly told us that BOTH OT and NT are for our instuction, Rom 15:4; 2 Tim 3:16. So do you only listen when Jesus is mediating info, or do u also listen when it comes direct from the Almighty?

Yes, it was the same God who told us that both OT and NT are for our instruction. However, I only believe the OT where it was NOT countermanded by God's own command spoken THROUGH His Son (Heb. 1:2; John 12:49). Otherwise, what Jesus says is the higher authority.

Rom 15:4 ORIGINALLY refered to OT; wheather enough time has passed for the NT to be considered the things written BEFORE, is irrelevant! Scripture must not be taken out of context of the times, culture, etc, otherwise they loose their true meaning! Yes, you can learn principles from it, just as the obsolete law of Moses still teaches us vital principles. But you don't claim that the meaning of what God said has changes over time!

Rom. 15:4 was applicable to the first-century Christians and is also applicable to 21st century Christians as well. Hence, the meaning of what God said has NOT changed over time.

God is the only one with the authority to change the meaningof his statements, not us. And no amount of time that passes will stop Ps 83:18 from being true until God says so! Where does the NT say that we should no longer use the name Jehovah? For that matter, if OT is so outdated, why should we read Esther? Esther is not restated in the NT, so should we exclude it from our Bible reading?

Tell me, what doctrine or instruction do we get from reading Ester that would make us "complete and thoroughly equipped for every good work" (2 Tim. 3:16)? Nothing! In fact, Jesus commanded his disciples NOT to emulate the "repetitious" praying of Ester (Matt. 6:7-8) who prayed for three days for God to save Mordecai. Some religions call this "devotional prayers," while the RCC calls this "novena."

When u appreciate thev aluce of ALL Scripture, you will fare better.

I appreciate the value of ALL scriptures. However, like drugs, some scriptures are more valuable than others to "completely and thoroughly equip the man of God for good works."

btw, the bk of Revelation says, Hallelujah, meaning, praise Jah; praise Jehovah! Again, his name is still a NT reality; which u rtrying to destroy. Rev 19:1

I didn't say "NO Israelites will be in heaven," did I?

The NT does not repeat that man and woman must become ONE FLESH Gen 2:24. So has this relationship been abolished?

No. The relationship of a man and a woman becoming one flesh, has NOT been abolished. This command is repeated in Matt. 19:5-6 and Eph. 5:31.