Thread: JW Question
February 11th 2009, 08:55 AM #46
Re: JW Question
It's true that when Paul WROTE this to the Roman Christians, he was referring to the Old Testament which, at that time, was the ONLY Scriptures the Christians recognized and accepted.
However, since the Scriptures as we know them TODAY is found in BOTH the Old and New Testament, and since these were written BEFORE our time in these last days, then BOTH the OT and the NT are Scriptures that were written BEFORE for our LEARNING.
Therefore, where the Old Testament is AMENDED by the New Testament, the Old Testament becomes OBSOLETE, just like any LAW that we have TODAY. A LAW that was passed in 1900 is NO LONGER enforceable where it ws AMENDED by a LAW in 2000.
Heb. 1:1-2 becomes for us, a GUIDE in the study of the Scriptures.
QUOTE=jahrule84;2575652]All this bit about who it is addressed to is a straw man; does Genesis need to have a intro saying "to all the Christians in the world" for you to accept that a man should stick to his wife, and become one flesh? Gen 2:24.
Heck, Luke did not address his Gospel to anyone else but Theoplilus, so by ur standards, I guess you don't obey the instruction found therein; huh? Ps 83:18; Isa 12:2,4 do not need to bear your name to be for ur instruction![/QUOTE]
As I stated above, although the New Testament was written more than a thousand years ago, it ALSO applies to US in these last days because it reflects God's commands to US which He spoke through His Son, which he passed on to his apostles. Therefore, what Luke wrote to Theoplilus ALSO applies to US in these last days (Heb. 1:1-2).
February 12th 2009, 01:59 PM #47
Re: JW Question
So your excuse is that the NT amends the OT? Sure, it amends the law of Moses, anything else? Where does the NT say that it amends God's name Jehovah?
And if the OT promises that this is his name and memorial FOR EVER, for GENREATION AFTER GENERATION, Ex 3:15, the NT cannot change that, otherwise, God was lying! When he said FOREVER, he meant it!
You use Heb 1:1,2 toargue that because Luke's info was passed on to us by Jesus from God, that it is for us. But it was this same God who directly told us that BOTH OT and NT are for our instuction, Rom 15:4; 2 Tim 3:16. So do you only listen when Jesus is mediating info, or do u also listen when it comes direct from the Almighty?
Rom 15:4 ORIGINALLY refered to OT; wheather enough time has passed for the NT to be considered the things written BEFORE, is irrelevant! Scripture must not be taken out of context of the times, culture, etc, otherwise they loose their true meaning! Yes, you can learn principles from it, just as the obsolete law of Moses still teaches us vital principles. But you don't claim that the meaning of what God said has changes over time!
God is the only one with the authority to change the meaningof his statements, not us. And no amount of time that passes will stop Ps 83:18 from being true until God says so! Where does the NT say that we should no longer use the name Jehovah? For that matter, if OT is so outdated, why should we read Esther? Esther is not restated in the NT, so should we exclude it from our Bible reading?
When u appreciate thev aluce of ALL Scripture, you will fare better.
btw, the bk of Revelation says, Hallelujah, meaning, praise Jah; praise Jehovah! Again, his name is still a NT reality; which u rtrying to destroy. Rev 19:1
The NT does not repeat that man and woman must become ONE FLESH Gen 2:24. So has this relationship been abolished?
February 12th 2009, 03:40 PM #48
Re: JW QuestionThere are two equal and opposite errors into which our race can fall about the devils. One is to dis-believe in their existance. The other is to believe, and to feel an excessive and unhealthy interest in them. They themselves are equally pleased by both errors and hail a materialist or a magician with the same delight. -- C.S. Lewis
February 12th 2009, 05:37 PM #49
Re: JW Question
These verses teach us that God has a NAME. And this NAME is the NAME that God GAVE Jesus (Phil. 2:9). If God's NAME is Jehovah, and this is the NAME that God GAVE Jesus, then Jesus should have been called Jesus Jehovah by the apostles.
However, we know that the apostles NEVER called Jesus, Jehovah, or Jesus Jehovah, or Jehovah Jesus. Instead, the apostles called Jesus, Christ, Jesus Christ, or Christ Jesus.
Why is this so? Because according to apostle Peter, God MADE Jesus BOTH Lord and CHRIST (Acts 2:36).
Therefore, the NAME of God that God GAVE to Jesus is - CHRIST.
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