Originally posted by psstein
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How about conversations all over any University in Germany "have you heard, while professor so-and-so is sensible, his Pope clings to Matthaean priority!"
And similar.
Originally posted by psstein
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Originally posted by psstein
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I take it he was a patron, but even so there would still be a reading before those whom he patronised (perhaps Jews up to the reading), while a publication in Church as canonic Gospel is another thing.
Originally posted by psstein
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Why would Matthew have written like Qumran communty itfp?
Originally posted by psstein
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Seems to concur with Augustinian, so much the better.
Originally posted by psstein
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Acc. to the Temple one.
Does not equal analphabetism, nor imply he was if so still an analphabet when in St Mark's company.
Originally posted by psstein
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What if that in Mark is confirming "apocryphal literature" rather than dating Mark late?
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