The Tabernacle and the Temple

[Bill the Cat]

Did you happen to notice the ( “I” ) in exodus 6:3?

Scripture Verse:

KJV Exodus 6:3

[3] “And I appeared unto Abraham, unto Isaac, and unto Jacob, by the name of God Almighty, but by my name JEHOVAH was I not known to them.”

(Bolding added for emphases.)

I noticed the “I” used in both critical places in that scripture. I say critical places because by using the “I” JEHOVAH apparently wanted to be sure we knew it was Him alone speaking and appearing to “Abraham, unto Isaac, and unto Jacob…” and not anything “triune.”

I = used of a single unit or thing; not two or more http://wordnetweb.princeton.edu/perl/webwn?s=i

According to your interpretation and belief isn’t the letter “I” used incorrectly. According to your belief shouldn’t that scripture say ‘And 'we' (your “triune (3) God”) appeared’ and ‘but by our name JEHOVAH were 'we' (your “triune (3) God”) not know to them’?

For some reason “JEHOVAH” made a statement in the singular person (“I”) when according to your belief “JEHOVAH” should have used plural speak and said ‘we’ meaning “triune” (3)... right?

Could this be one of those places where the King James Version is translated incorrectly or is it the same(“I”) in all your bibles representing your “triune (3) God?”

Was JEHOVAH misrepresenting Himself when He said (“I appeared” ( I = used of a single unit or thing; not two or more) instead of ‘we’ or is it your belief that JEHOVAH is “triune” and not I (I = used of a single unit or thing; not two or more) is what should come into question.

I noticed you said “we believe…” If you had used ‘I believe’ would have it meant the same to the reader as “we believe…” Would the reader automatically assume if you had said ‘I believe’ that you meant that you were actually ‘we’ “triune…(3)” I think not NOT… and neither did JEHOVAH as “I” is not “triune” and neither is JEHOVAH!

Scripture Verse:

KJV Exodus 6:3

[3] “And I appeared unto Abraham, unto Isaac, and unto Jacob, by the name of God Almighty, but by my name JEHOVAH was I not known to them.”

NOTICE THE “I”!!!

Now that we have established JEHOVAH is “I” and not “triune” we can get on with the discussion of God (JEHOVAH AKA Jesus) and His body.

Whose tabernacle was it in the wilderness? Whose temple did Solomon build and Zerubbabel rebuild? Were they Jehovah's house?

Jeremiah 7:4
4 Trust ye not in lying words, saying, The temple of YHWH, The temple of YHWH, The temple of YHWH, are these.

10 then come and stand before Me in this house, which is called by My name, and say, 'We are delivered!'--that you may do all these abominations?

11 "Has this house, which is called by My name, become a den of robbers in your sight? Behold, I, even I, have seen it," declares the LORD.

[Bill the Cat]

Bill, looks like LDStrue can't answer the OP so he is trying to sidetrack it into a strawman he is building.

LDStrue... please stick to the OP.

And he won't answer whose temple it was. This is the third time I've asked him, and I remember twice you asked him.

[Bill the Cat]

Fine. Answer this here then.

Thread split

[Sparko]

[Cow Poke]

[wonbyone]

I couldn't help it!

[Sparko]

:crickets:

[Bill the Cat]

:cricket:

[LDSTrue]

And he won't answer whose temple it was. This is the third time I've asked him, and I remember twice you asked him.

I said nothing about Temples.

Scripture Verse:

KJV Exodus 6:3

[3] “And I appeared unto Abraham, unto Isaac, and unto Jacob, by the name of God Almighty, but by my name JEHOVAH was I not known to them.”

(Bolding added for emphases.)

I noticed the “I” used in both critical places in that scripture. I say critical places because by using the “I” JEHOVAH apparently wanted to be sure we knew it was Him alone speaking and appearing to “Abraham, unto Isaac, and unto Jacob…” and not anything “triune.”

What are you trying to prove? Please be explicit!

Are you saying because the temples were built for the Lord, JEHOVAH saying "I" could possibly be interpreted as He was acting as proxy for your triune God or, He was your triune God? "I" equals triune to you?

Scripture Verse:

KJV Exodus 6:3

[3] “And I appeared unto Abraham, unto Isaac, and unto Jacob, by the name of God Almighty, but by my name JEHOVAH was I not known to them.”

No, I can’t perceive the relationship you are trying to make with JEHOVAH saying “I” and the Jews building temples.

There is this scripture where Jesus claims the temple belongs to His Father and God, the very God He was proxy for in Exodus 6:3

Scripture Verse:

KJV John 2:16

[16] “And said unto them that sold doves, Take these things hence; make not my Father’s house an house of merchandise.”

Please help my understanding and explain exactly how your response changes anything quoted in Exodus 6:3 or John 2:16 all the while keeping in mind…

Scripture Verse:

KJV John 20: 17

[17] “Jesus saith unto her, Touch me not; for I am not yet ascended to my Father: but go to my brethren, and say unto them, I ascend unto my Father, and your Father; and to my God, and your God.

[Sparko]

If YHWH was Jesus, and YHWH was the God of the Israelites and Jews, then the Temple would be HIS temple. Instead he said it was his Father's.

It was the temple of YHWH. So who is YHWH?

[Bill the Cat]

I said nothing about Temples.

I know. We've asked you several times, and you finally get around to responding, as awful as it is...

What are you trying to prove? Please be explicit!

That YOUR belief that Jehovah is exclusively Jesus is completely wrong.

Are you saying because the temples were built for the Lord, JEHOVAH saying "I" could possibly be interpreted as He was acting as proxy for your triune God or, He was your triune God? "I" equals triune to you?

Scripture Verse:

KJV Exodus 6:3

[3] “And I appeared unto Abraham, unto Isaac, and unto Jacob, by the name of God Almighty, but by my name JEHOVAH was I not known to them.”

No, I can’t perceive the relationship you are trying to make with JEHOVAH saying “I” and the Jews building temples.

There is this scripture where Jesus claims the temple belongs to His Father and God, the very God He was proxy for in Exodus 6:3

Scripture Verse:

KJV John 2:16

[16] “And said unto them that sold doves, Take these things hence; make not my Father’s house an house of merchandise.”

Please help my understanding and explain exactly how your response changes anything quoted in Exodus 6:3 or John 2:16 all the while keeping in mind…

Scripture Verse:

KJV John 20: 17

[17] “Jesus saith unto her, Touch me not; for I am not yet ascended to my Father: but go to my brethren, and say unto them, I ascend unto my Father, and your Father; and to my God, and your God.

My question is simple. Whose temple was it?

[OtherCheek]

Whose tabernacle was it in the wilderness? Whose temple did Solomon build and Zerubbabel rebuild? Were they Jehovah's house?

Jeremiah 7:4
4 Trust ye not in lying words, saying, The temple of YHWH, The temple of YHWH, The temple of YHWH, are these.

10 then come and stand before Me in this house, which is called by My name, and say, 'We are delivered!'--that you may do all these abominations?

11 "Has this house, which is called by My name, become a den of robbers in your sight? Behold, I, even I, have seen it," declares the LORD.

Jehovah, YHWH: both names refer to the same individual: Jesus Christ.

The question of the temple being called "My Father's House" by Jesus, is an example of what the LDS call the "principle of divine investiture of authority" being evident.

Ultimately, EVERYTHING is the Father's. The Godhead (or even the Trinity) should not be viewed as a relationship where possessions are divvied up between the three. Jesus simply was teaching a lesson that he defers to his Father which is in heaven. But Jesus is the great mediator, and representative of the Father between the Father and Man.

Jesus has full authority to speak in behalf of the Father in all things, and represent the Father in all things.

[Bill the Cat]

Jehovah, YHWH: both names refer to the same individual: Jesus Christ.

The question of the temple being called "My Father's House" by Jesus, is an example of what the LDS call the "principle of divine investiture of authority" being evident.

Ultimately, EVERYTHING is the Father's. The Godhead (or even the Trinity) should not be viewed as a relationship where possessions are divvied up between the three. Jesus simply was teaching a lesson that he defers to his Father which is in heaven. But Jesus is the great mediator, and representative of the Father between the Father and Man.

Jesus has full authority to speak in behalf of the Father in all things, and represent the Father in all things.

Nice try, OC, but there is no hint of that in the OT at all. Jehovah calls the Temple "MINE" and "CALLED BY MY NAME" , not the Father's name. Why were the Jews before Jesus came to earth so ignorant of Jehovah not being the Father?

[OtherCheek]

Nice try, OC, but there is no hint of that in the OT at all. Jehovah calls the Temple "MINE" and "CALLED BY MY NAME" , not the Father's name. Why were the Jews before Jesus came to earth so ignorant of Jehovah not being the Father?

Jesus is our Advocate with the Father, and our Representative before Him.

You don't really believe in competitive and exclusive ownership of property between the Father and the Son do you?

[Bill the Cat]

Jesus is our Advocate with the Father, and our Representative before Him.

You don't really believe in competitive and exclusive ownership of property between the Father and the Son do you?

No because they are one. Again, there is no indication that Jehovah in the OT shares anything with a higher being, and quite the contrary, states that there IS no higher being. Jehovah said His name was written on the temple, and that it was HIS House.


1 Chronicles 28:6
"He said to me, 'Your son Solomon is the one who shall build My house and My courts; for I have chosen him to be a son to Me, and I will be a father to him.

They belong to Jehovah ALONE.

In fact, the very verse Jesus quoted as He cleansed the temple shows that He was not exclusively Jehovah:

Isaiah 56:7
For My house will be called a house of prayer for all the peoples."

Jehovah says it is HIS House and Jesus says it is His Father's House.


As I have asked many times of all of you Mormons... please show from the OT where Jehovah has one in authority over Him.