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  • #61
    Originally posted by Cerebrum123 View Post
    He's been told this over and over again. He equates a copyist error in the Bible with God lying for some strange reason.
    Saying "He equates a copyist error in the Bible with God lying for some strange reason" is not true and I deny that God errs. The source of this contradiction must be human and hence the Bible today is not fully inspired by God.

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    • #62
      Still dodging the fact that by your own criteria the qur'an is not inspired by God I see

      I'm always still in trouble again

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      • #63
        Originally posted by Same Hakeem View Post
        Whether the result of this contradiction (between 2 Kings 8:26 and 2 Chronicles 22:2) in the Bible today is due to copyist error or other reasons, the fact remains this contradiction (between 2 Kings 8:26 and 2 Chronicles 22:2) proves that the Bible today is not fully inspired by God.
        No, it doesn't. It just disproves your misguided version of inspiration.

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        • #64
          Originally posted by Same Hakeem View Post
          Whether the result of this contradiction (between 2 Kings 8:26 and 2 Chronicles 22:2) in the Bible today is due to copyist error or other reasons, the fact remains this contradiction (between 2 Kings 8:26 and 2 Chronicles 22:2) proves that the Bible today is not fully inspired by God.
          Because?

          I mean, I hope you have some sort of argument for your silly conclusion.

          Comment


          • #65
            Originally posted by Same Hakeem View Post
            Saying "He equates a copyist error in the Bible with God lying for some strange reason" is not true and I deny that God errs. The source of this contradiction must be human and hence the Bible today is not fully inspired by God.
            Most inerrantists aver that only the original manuscripts are inerrant.

            As to what that says about "inspiration," meh, whatever.
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            • #66
              Originally posted by Apologiaphoenix View Post
              I just take it to mean that the Bible is without error on what it teaches.
              So what does it teach ?

              For instance, does it teach that Samuel the judge was an Ephraimite (1 Sam. 1) and a Levite ? Does it teach that Shem son of Noah lived 600 years ? (Rather than, say, Shem being legendary, or possibly a group, or some such ?) What is meant by “the Bible teaches” ? Is Psalm 114 teaching ?

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              • #67
                Originally posted by Rushing Jaws View Post
                So what does it teach ?

                For instance, does it teach that Samuel the judge was an Ephraimite (1 Sam. 1) and a Levite ? Does it teach that Shem son of Noah lived 600 years ? (Rather than, say, Shem being legendary, or possibly a group, or some such ?) What is meant by “the Bible teaches” ? Is Psalm 114 teaching ?
                Your cat just revealed to me that Shem did in fact live 600 years, and I'm not about to argue with those eyes.

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                • #68
                  Inerrancy says nothing about what it teaches other than that it is true. The interpretations are not guaranteed by inerrancy.

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                  • #69
                    Originally posted by Scrawly View Post
                    Your cat just revealed to me that Shem did in fact live 600 years, and I'm not about to argue with those eyes.
                    That is certainly an answer LOL. Though how she would know, idk. And she does have adorable eyes.
                    Last edited by Rushing Jaws; 06-19-2018, 03:20 AM.

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                    • #70
                      There are three things inerrancy is not: 1) Not the human reader. 2) Not the human copyist. 3) Not the human translator.

                      One thing it is: God's word.
                      . . . the gospel of Christ: for it is the power of God unto salvation to every one that believeth; . . . -- Romans 1:16 KJV

                      . . . that Christ died for our sins according to the scriptures; And that he was buried, and that he rose again the third day according to the scriptures: . . . -- 1 Corinthians 15:3-4 KJV

                      Whosoever believeth that Jesus is the Christ is born of God: . . . -- 1 John 5:1 KJV

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                      • #71
                        Errancy in the Bible is found in the form of contraditions.

                        A contradition of doctrinal nature is found between Matthew 5:8 (pure hearted ones will see God) and 1 Timothy 6:16 (no one can see God).

                        Matthew 5:8 says "blessed those who are pure in heart for they shall see God" ; however, " no one can see God" according to 1 Timothy 6:16.

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                        • #72
                          Originally posted by Apologiaphoenix View Post
                          Because?

                          I mean, I hope you have some sort of argument for your silly conclusion.
                          It does not matter what the reasons are for the existance of the contradition between 2 kings 8:26 and 2 chronicles 22:2.

                          What matters is the unchanged fact that the Bible today is not fully inspired by God with such contradition despite how this contradition got in today Bible.

                          By the way, contradition between 2 kings 8:26 and 2 chronicles 22:2 is one of many contraditions in Bible today.

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                          • #73
                            Originally posted by Apologiaphoenix View Post
                            Inerrancy says nothing about what it teaches other than that it is true. The interpretations are not guaranteed by inerrancy.
                            There are doctrinal contraditions in the Bible that cannot be due to interpretation. For example, matthew 5:8 says "blessed those who are pure in heart for THEY SHALL SEE GOD"; however, 1 Timothy 6:16 says " NO ONE CAN SEE GOD"

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                            • #74
                              Originally posted by Same Hakeem View Post
                              There are doctrinal contraditions in the Bible that cannot be due to interpretation. For example, matthew 5:8 says "blessed those who are pure in heart for THEY SHALL SEE GOD"; however, 1 Timothy 6:16 says " NO ONE CAN SEE GOD"
                              1 John 3:2 gives a clue how to resolve this apparent conundrum.
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                              • #75
                                Originally posted by One Bad Pig View Post
                                1 John 3:2 gives a clue how to resolve this apparent conundrum.
                                1 John 3:2 reads "Dear friends, now we are children of God, and what we will be has not yet been made known. But we know that when Christ appears, we shall be like him, for we shall see him as he is."

                                Still it does not provide us with a solution as 1 Timothy 6:16 says " NO one CAN see God" while Matthew 5:8 says " the pure in heart shall SEE GOD"

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