Originally posted by Don Schneider
The following is an online quote from an unidentified Biblical scholar who upholds orthodox Biblical teaching. Since I don’t even know who he or she is I obviously can’t attest to the validity of his or her research. However, since he or she is upholding your point of view (albeit for a different reason than yours), I tend to believe he or she has done adequate research on the matter. Do you have any sources that attribute this belief to an earlier period and that it was present in Judea at the time of Christ?:
“Many New Agers mistakenly assume that the disciples' question in John 9:1-2 implies a belief in reincarnation: "As Jesus went along, He saw a man born blind from birth. His disciples asked Him, `Rabbi, who sinned, this man or his parents, that he was born blind?' `Neither this man nor his parents sinned,' said Jesus, `but this happened so that the work of God might be displayed in his life.'" Bible commentaries typically contend that the disciples' question reflects a rabbinic belief that a fetus can sin in its mother's womb. But this rabbinic belief stems from around 300 AD--far too late to serve as the background for John 9:1-2. Rather, the disciples' question reflects the belief attested in the Wisdom of Solomon that the soul can acquire a good or bad character prior to birth. Jesus does not dispute this belief, but merely asserts that this particular blind man was not born blind because of his own sins committed in his preexistent state.”
Work Problems - Again
Today, 04:49 PM in Chaplain's Office