Thank-you both for the advice. (I'll see if I can get it right)
I understand that Witherington is a scholar ... however, it is not possible for the text of John 13:1 -2 to give rise to that conclusion. If there are reasons for assuming it is not, they do not come from the scripture itself.
1 before the Passover feast, Jesus knew that his time had come to depart from this world to the Father. Having loved his own who were in the world, he now loved them to the very end. 2 The evening meal was in progress ...
Before the Passover feast Jesus knew and did certain things. And during the meal certain things happened.
How can it be asserted that the meal was not the Passover meal? The text provides no grounds for doing so.
Before the celebration, he did ... . During the party this and that happened ... who would expect that the party was not part of the previously stated celebration? Even without "And" as a conjunction between the sentences.
Originally posted by Adrift
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1 before the Passover feast, Jesus knew that his time had come to depart from this world to the Father. Having loved his own who were in the world, he now loved them to the very end. 2 The evening meal was in progress ...
Before the Passover feast Jesus knew and did certain things. And during the meal certain things happened.
How can it be asserted that the meal was not the Passover meal? The text provides no grounds for doing so.
Before the celebration, he did ... . During the party this and that happened ... who would expect that the party was not part of the previously stated celebration? Even without "And" as a conjunction between the sentences.
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