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Ok. How do modern Arians like JWs interpret these verses ? Whos glory did Isaiah see in the OT scripture, and was Jesus Christ inserting himself to the text of Isaiah 6 ? There is really no contextual reason to think that Jesus was referring to some other portion of the book of Isaiah, given the point of Isaiah 6:9-10 and John 12:40.
John is pointing primarily to Isaiah 53. Isaiah 6 simply compares Isaiah's rejection with Jesus', however there was a difference... You needed to have kept reading: vs42 "Yet at the same time many even among the leaders believed in him. But because of the Pharisees they would not confess their faith for fear they would be put out of the synagogue"
Ok. How do modern Arians like JWs interpret these verses ? Whos glory did Isaiah see in the OT scripture, and was Jesus Christ inserting himself to the text of Isaiah 6 ? There is really no contextual reason to think that Jesus was referring to some other portion of the book of Isaiah, given the point of Isaiah 6:9-10 and John 12:40.[/QUOTE]
Decades ago I was given the nickname "apostoli" by an older Greek lady at a takeaway, because I was her favourite "Paul" and the tag stuck. Too many people named "Paul" in this world! No other significance in the tag...
John is pointing primarily to Isaiah 53. Isaiah 6 simply compares Isaiah's rejection with Jesus', however there was a difference... You needed to have kept reading: vs42 "Yet at the same time many even among the leaders believed in him. But because of the Pharisees they would not confess their faith for fear they would be put out of the synagogue"
Ok. How do modern Arians like JWs interpret these verses ? Whos glory did Isaiah see in the OT scripture, and was Jesus Christ inserting himself to the text of Isaiah 6 ? There is really no contextual reason to think that Jesus was referring to some other portion of the book of Isaiah, given the point of Isaiah 6:9-10 and John 12:40.
[/QUOTE]
I agree that John 12:38 is referring to Isaiah 53. But John 12:39-41 is referring to Isaiah 6. There is no reason not to think that John would not in include Christ with the glory and holiness of God that overwelmed Isaiah in Isaiah 6. The prophetic statement of verse 6:9 comes right on the heels of Isaiah witnessing the glory of God in verses 1-7.
Furthermore, John 12:44-45 further cements Christ in the glory and holiness of God witness by Isaiah in 6.
I am Reformed, so I understand the point that John in the passage is making and why some of them are rejecting Christ. But I don't think we can rule out something broader being said about Who Christ is as well.
I agree that John 12:38 is referring to Isaiah 53. But John 12:39-41 is referring to Isaiah 6. There is no reason not to think that John would not in include Christ with the glory and holiness of God that overwelmed Isaiah in Isaiah 6. The prophetic statement of verse 6:9 comes right on the heels of Isaiah witnessing the glory of God in verses 1-7.
Furthermore, John 12:44-45 further cements Christ in the glory and holiness of God witness by Isaiah in 6.
I am Reformed, so I understand the point that John in the passage is making and why some of them are rejecting Christ. But I don't think we can rule out something broader being said about Who Christ is as well.
Basically, it comes down to the fact that no one can come to the Son unless the Father draws him (Jn 6:44). Thus Isaiah 6:8-10, links into Isaiah 53. When John 12:41 says "These things said Esaias, when he saw his glory, and spake of him" i take it A.John is refering to Isaiah 53:10-12. Consider John 17:1...
Last edited by apostoli; February 24th 2012 at 03:42 AM.
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Today, 04:06 AM in Apologetics 301