How is 2 Pet 3:3-13 understood under the preterist paradigm?

[Chrawnus]

I've been looking into the preterist view for a while, and I've been wondering how the following part of 2 Peter is understood from the (orthodox) preterist viewpoint (and whether there are several interpretations that preterists can hold regarding this passage, or if there's mainly one view on it)

2 Peter 3:3-13 NASB

2Pe 3:3 Know this first of all, that in the last days mockers will come with their mocking, following after their own lusts,
2Pe 3:4 and saying, "Where is the promise of His coming? For ever since the fathers fell asleep, all continues just as it was from the beginning of creation."
2Pe 3:5 For when they maintain this, it escapes their notice that by the word of God the heavens existed long ago and the earth was formed out of water and by water,
2Pe 3:6 through which the world at that time was destroyed, being flooded with water.
2Pe 3:7 But by His word the present heavens and earth are being reserved for fire, kept for the day of judgment and destruction of ungodly men.
2Pe 3:8 But do not let this one fact escape your notice, beloved, that with the Lord one day is like a thousand years, and a thousand years like one day.
2Pe 3:9 The Lord is not slow about His promise, as some count slowness, but is patient toward you, not wishing for any to perish but for all to come to repentance.
2Pe 3:10 But the day of the Lord will come like a thief, in which the heavens will pass away with a roar and the elements will be destroyed with intense heat, and the earth and its works will be burned up.
2Pe 3:11 Since all these things are to be destroyed in this way, what sort of people ought you to be in holy conduct and godliness,
2Pe 3:12 looking for and hastening the coming of the day of God, because of which the heavens will be destroyed by burning, and the elements will melt with intense heat!
2Pe 3:13 But according to His promise we are looking for new heavens and a new earth, in which righteousness dwells.

My own understanding of what Peter is teaching here is basically as follows:

2 Peter 3:3-4 Is basically a prediction by Peter, where foretells that in the last days (which I take to be the period roughly between either Jesus' ascension or his resurrection and the Last Judgement) there will be people who mock the belief that Jesus will return in judgement of all creation.

2 Peter 3:5-9 is then basically a reply to this by Peter, where he argues (using typology) that just as the former world (which I take to be the whole world) was destroyed through water, so will the present world (which I also take to be the entire earth since he uses the phrase "heavens and earth" to refer to it in verse 7, which I understand to be a hebrew expression signifying the totality of creation) destroyed through fire. The "day of judgment and destruction of ungodly men" which he writes about would then refer to the judgement and the destruction of all unbelievers living in those days wherever they live on the globe. Verse 8-9 would then be the thrust of his argument against the mockers, namely that 1. To God time does not matter in the sense that it does to us, and 2. That God extends the time of mercy because He does not want anyone to perish, but for all to come to repentance. I.e He wants as many to be saved as is possible.

Verse 10 would then be a statement that the day of the Lord (having a general sense of a time of judgement of God, but here referring to the last judgement) will come unexpectedly (like a thief), but when it finally comes, the entirety of creation, encapsulating the heavens and the earth will be destroyed through fire, or atleast what in Peter's mind would be understood as fire.

Verse 11-12 would then be an exhortation that since "all these things are to be destroyed in this way" (unexpectedly and through fire) the recipients of Peters letter, and by extension later Christians should live "in holy conduct and godliness" and "looking for and hastening the coming of the day of God" (By doing missionary work, perhaps? I have to admit I'm not really sure what he means here)

And lastly, I understand verse 13 to be sort of a reassurance to his readers, that even if the present world is to be destroyed they shouldn't worry, since God has promised that He will create new heavens and a new earth, where righteousness dwells, that is, in which there will be no sin.

So, that's my own limited understanding of this passage. But how is it understood under the preterist paradigm? Does it necessarily refer to the judgement of Israel and destruction of Jerusalem in 70 AD, or is there room in preterism for the interpretation that it refers to the entirety of creation? (I'm not necessarily looking for a verse by verse commentary by the way, a general explanation fine)

And just to make it clear, this is not a "stump the preterist"-thread. I'm genuinely interested in how this passage is interpreted under the preterist paradigm, and I would advice anyone who's looking for an outlet to argue against preterism to search for another thread, since I'm not at all interested in turning this thread into a debate between different eschatological camps.

[alaskazimm]

My view would be the same as what you wrote here. I see this as a prophecy concerning the end of the present world and the second coming of Jesus.

There is nothing inherent to preterism that entails that all eschatological passages refer to 70AD. In fact taking that stance is hyper-perterism (that all prophecy is in the past). This passage in Peter, in my estimation, is parallel to and a summation of Rev 20:9-21:7.

[Littlejoe]

I would concur with Alaskazimm...I don't think this is talking about the tribulation (of 70 AD), but of the true end, the final return of Christ. IMO, It's actually one of the verses that show us how important it is to evangelize now, because there won't be a 7 year period where scoffers can recant and turn to Christ due to the "rapture"...it will come suddenly and unexpectedly "like a thief in the night". No more chances after that.... Just the end and then the judgement.

LJ

[AlphaBravo]

I haven't studied this closely but just painting with a broad brush I think LJ has a good point.

The last time I read through I & II Peter I sensed that Peter's urgency had subsided in the second epistle. Almost as if he were doing damage control after the first epistle where he had said that "the end of all things is at hand". In the second epistle he starts talking about "diligence" and "patience" but he still sees his own imminent demise "i must shortly put off this tabernacle as Christ has shown me". In the second epistle he talks about "more sure prophecy" and "private interpretations". Apparently damage control for some response to his previous letter.

My sense is that both epistles were written prior to AD70. The first deals primarily with the persecution and the fiery trial that would precede the fall of Jerusalem and the second has a longer range view of what would remain afterward. I'm not entirely happy with this explanation since he still refers to the "last days" in the second epistle and to the "hasting of the day of God" and to the work of scoffers as perhaps a sign of this but it is consistent with a preterist viewpoint i think.