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May 10th 2012, 01:31 AM #1
What hard evidence is there that Apocalyptic Literature...
...is a non-literal genre? Obviously, just based on the way its written and the way people of the time read it, its very clearly not literal. But I'm currently in a discussion with someone who doesn't seem to quite be getting that. (They're a bit thick). So, does anybody know of any hard evidence that shows writings in the Apocalyptic genre (like the apocalyptic sections in Revelation, Daniel, Amos, etc.) weren't meant to be taken literally?
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May 10th 2012, 02:59 PM #2
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May 10th 2012, 03:05 PM #3
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May 12th 2012, 03:44 PM #4
Re: What hard evidence is there that Apocalyptic Literature.
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May 12th 2012, 06:08 PM #5
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Male - ChristianRe: What hard evidence is there that Apocalyptic Literature.
It might not serve as "hard" evidence, but I might point your friend toward Revelation 17:2, when it discusses how the harlot of Revelation is "intoxicated with the wine of her adulteries" (NIV). This looks like a clear example of symbolism - where something explicitly is named as standing for something else (and frankly, to take this descriptor literally would probably be very difficult). A few verses later, in 17:6, we see that the harlot is now "drunk with the blood of the saints" - something else which might be difficult to take literally, but I think that arguing based on 17:2 is clearer.
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May 12th 2012, 06:17 PM #6
Re: What hard evidence is there that Apocalyptic Literature.
As far as what we know is symbolism... it's pretty simple. If they explain what it represents, it's symbolism. We know that the two sisters in Ezekiel weren't really women that were infatuated with soldiers with sexual organs like donkeys because we're told what they represent. We know that the four horesman in Rev are symbolic because the text explains what they represent. We know the Harlot is symbolic because the text explains what she represents in Rev 18. We know that the two candlesticks are symbolic of individuals (though it doesn't say who they are) because the narrative explains that they eventually die and what they do before they die. So, based on that pattern, we see a formula -- if it's symbolic, chances are good that it would have been explained to us. When a clear explanation is not given, then whether it's symbolic or not is up in the air -- this is where the futurist says that literalism, in this case, has precedence.
Last edited by seanD; May 12th 2012 at 06:19 PM.
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The following tWebber says Amen to seanD for this useful Post:
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May 12th 2012, 07:09 PM #7
Re: What hard evidence is there that Apocalyptic Literature.
Psst. The thread starter is banned.
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I recommend you do not try too hard and ...research as little as possible. Such weighty things give me a headache. - Shunyadragon, Baha'i apologist
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May 12th 2012, 08:22 PM #8
Re: What hard evidence is there that Apocalyptic Literature.
Doesn't mean he can't see the thread, does it?
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May 12th 2012, 08:34 PM #9
Re: What hard evidence is there that Apocalyptic Literature.
Banned after one post? That was quick! I guess he was a sock puppet of some sort?
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May 13th 2012, 06:03 PM #10
Re: What hard evidence is there that Apocalyptic Literature.
Veritas vos Liberabit<><Learn Greek<>< Orthodox Church in America locator<><Ancient Faith Radio<><Buy books here & support TheologyWeb!
I recommend you do not try too hard and ...research as little as possible. Such weighty things give me a headache. - Shunyadragon, Baha'i apologist
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