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John 1:9 says, "There was the true Light which, coming into the world, enlightens every man." What does the word "enlightens" mean? Is this verse talking about enlightening every single person on earth?
John 1:9 says, "There was the true Light which, coming into the world, enlightens every man." What does the word "enlightens" mean? Is this verse talking about enlightening every single person on earth?
From The Gospel According to St. John: An Introduction with Commentary and Notes on the Greek Text, Second Edition (Philadelphia: The Westminster Press, 1978), by C. K. Barrett:
φωτίζειν may mean (a) 'to shed light upon', 'to bring to light', 'to make visible', or (b) 'to illuminate inwardly', 'to instruct', 'to give give knowledge'. (b) is a common, though secondary use of the word. .... When the Prologue is interpreted in terms of Hellenistic religion, and the Logos thought of in the Stoic manner, it is natural to see in the present verse a reference to a general illumination of all men by the divine Reason, which was subsequently deepened by the more complete manifestation of the Logos in the incarnation (...). Whether John's words do in fact bear this meaning is, however, open to doubt. (i) In the next verse he emphasizes that ὁ κόσμος αὐτὸν οὐκ ἔγνω ― there was no natural and universal knowledge of the light. (ii) It was those who received Christ who received authority to become children of God. (iii) In the rest of the gospel the function of light is judgment; when it shines, some come to it, others do not. It is not true that all men have a natural affinity with the light. In view of these facts it is well to understand φωτίζειν in sense (a) ― the light shines upon every man for judgment, to reveal what he is. For this usage cf. e.g. Polybius XXII, v, 10; and in the New Testament 1 Cor. 4:5, φωτίσει τὰ κρυπτὰ τοῦ σκότους, 2 Tim. 1:10, φωτίσαντος δὲ ζωὴν καὶ ἀφθαρσίαν. Render therefore, '... which shines upon every man' (whether he sees it or not).
From The Gospel According to St. John: An Introduction with Commentary and Notes on the Greek Text, Second Edition (Philadelphia: The Westminster Press, 1978), by C. K. Barrett:
φωτίζειν may mean (a) 'to shed light upon', 'to bring to light', 'to make visible', or (b) 'to illuminate inwardly', 'to instruct', 'to give give knowledge'. (b) is a common, though secondary use of the word. .... When the Prologue is interpreted in terms of Hellenistic religion, and the Logos thought of in the Stoic manner, it is natural to see in the present verse a reference to a general illumination of all men by the divine Reason, which was subsequently deepened by the more complete manifestation of the Logos in the incarnation (...). Whether John's words do in fact bear this meaning is, however, open to doubt. (i) In the next verse he emphasizes that ὁ κόσμος αὐτὸν οὐκ ἔγνω ― there was no natural and universal knowledge of the light. (ii) It was those who received Christ who received authority to become children of God. (iii) In the rest of the gospel the function of light is judgment; when it shines, some come to it, others do not. It is not true that all men have a natural affinity with the light. In view of these facts it is well to understand φωτίζειν in sense (a) ― the light shines upon every man for judgment, to reveal what he is. For this usage cf. e.g. Polybius XXII, v, 10; and in the New Testament 1 Cor. 4:5, φωτίσει τὰ κρυπτὰ τοῦ σκότους, 2 Tim. 1:10, φωτίσαντος δὲ ζωὴν καὶ ἀφθαρσίαν. Render therefore, '... which shines upon every man' (whether he sees it or not).
Ok. I understand. The Light shines upon every man whether he sees it or not. The verse does not mean that every person on earth understands the gospel.
Are there different kinds of knowledge? The quote from the commentary says that there is no natural and universal knowledge of the light, but Romans 1 says that everyone knows God.
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