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Why Genesis 6 is not referring to the sons of Shem - Page 4
Re: Why Genesis 6 is not referring to the sons of Shem
Originally posted by seanD
You're making the same argument Sparko made, but I expected much better from you. It's an argument from silence. They had no reason to give details about the specific act because it had nothing to do with the overall message. Peter was addressing the judgement of Noah's flood as precursor to the coming judgement, but he wasn't being specific about sexual immorality. Jude was addressing it as an example of how God spares no one who is disobedient (though he does reference the fact they went after "strange flesh"). The context is clear. You're denying it because it brings up issues of inerrancy.
I don’t think this thread is any different than the myriad of other threads about trivial subjects, such as the countless Calvinism vs. Arminianism debates. In fact, I think the exchanges in here have been somewhat mild compared to some of those debates. That’s what goes on here at Tweb and that's what makes a thread interesting.
Better an argument from silence than one from eisegesis.
By your logic we should believe Jesus was an alien because the bible never says he is. If you disagree then you are just a denialist!
Re: Why Genesis 6 is not referring to the sons of Shem
Originally posted by Sparko
Better an argument from silence than one from eisegesis.
By your logic we should believe Jesus was an alien because the bible never says he is. If you disagree then you are just a denialist!
All you ever do is engage in hyperbole and reductio ad absurdum. You never really contribute anything in the way of discussion other than that. I see you do it almost every thread you take part in. But it doesn't help your arguments much.
Re: Why Genesis 6 is not referring to the sons of Shem
Originally posted by seanD
All you ever do is engage in hyperbole and reductio ad absurdum. You never really contribute anything in the way of discussion other than that. I see you do it almost every thread you take part in. But it doesn't help your arguments much.
When you make absurd statements like accusing us of being denialists and arguing from silence, then it's up to me to show you how ridiculous they are so maybe you will think before saying such dumb things next time.
If the Peter and Jude don't say anything about angels and humans having sex, then you trying to use Peter and Jude to support your argument is the ridiculous one. And you have the audacity to try to claim that us pointing out that fact to you is an "argument from silence"??? really?
Re: Why Genesis 6 is not referring to the sons of Shem
Originally posted by Sparko
When you make absurd statements like accusing us of being denialists and arguing from silence, then it's up to me to show you how ridiculous they are so maybe you will think before saying such dumb things next time.
If the Peter and Jude don't say anything about angels and humans having sex, then you trying to use Peter and Jude to support your argument is the ridiculous one. And you have the audacity to try to claim that us pointing out that fact to you is an "argument from silence"??? really?
Okay (putting aside the fact that Jude references Enoch directly) then explain to me why you think Peter and Jude should have mentioned the specific sexual acts the angels did and the hybrids that came from that union in the context of the subject they were addressing. Since you're quick to refute the argument without even knowing what the passages are, you have to first find the passages I'm referring to. Of course, being the expert you are, I'm sure finding them won't be a problem.
Re: Why Genesis 6 is not referring to the sons of Shem
Originally posted by seanD
Okay (putting aside the fact that Jude references Enoch directly) then explain to me why you think Peter and Jude should have mentioned the specific sexual acts the angels did and the hybrids that came from that union in the context of the subject they were addressing. Since you're quick to refute the argument without even knowing what the passages are, you have to first find the passages I'm referring to. Of course, being the expert you are, I'm sure finding them won't be a problem.
So now your argument is that "why should they have mentioned it" and then concluding that it must be true. Sounds like you are the one trying to argue from silence now.
Why should they have mentioned that Jesus was an Alien from Mars? That means he must have been!
Re: Why Genesis 6 is not referring to the sons of Shem
Originally posted by Sparko
So now your argument is that "why should they have mentioned it" and then concluding that it must be true. Sounds like you are the one trying to argue from silence now.
Why should they have mentioned that Jesus was an Alien from Mars? That means he must have been!
No. Peter described an angelic fall and judgement in correlation with Noah's flood that just happens to be similar to an angelic fall and judgement in correlation with Noah's flood that is described in the Enoch source. You're denying that there is any connection and calling it a coincidence. Jude not only mentions an angelic fall and judgement because, like those of Sodom and Gomorrah, they went after "strange flesh," but he actually references the Enoch source directly, yet you're still denying it's the same angelic fall and calling it a coincidence. And your argument is that, since they didn't go into extended detail about what the angels did, it has to be a different account. Does that sound like a rational argument to you?
Re: Why Genesis 6 is not referring to the sons of Shem
Originally posted by seanD
That's even worse for the denialist than denying they were referencing Enoch at all. If they were referencing Enoch, then they obviously believed the story about the fall and judgement of the angels. Whether the whole of Enoch is true or not is irrelevant at that point. I'm not arguing in favor of the whole book of Enoch or its authenticity. That's not what this thread is about.
The problem is that similarities, or even quotes from a source does not entail that the Peter or Jude believed the whole story of Enoch to be true.
Perhaps since Paul referenced a saying from a Cretan prophet..perhaps it means that Paul believed everything that prophet said?
The issue is this: you are looking at a piece of evidence and jumping to conclusions. From the outside, it looks like you are doing this because it supports what you believe...but perhaps you have another reason for doing so.
However, when one actually looks at the evidence that you have provided, it doesn't provide good insight to the angle-hybrid theory one way or the other.
Re: Why Genesis 6 is not referring to the sons of Shem
Originally posted by seanD
You're denying that there is any connection and calling it a coincidence. Jude not only mentions an angelic fall and judgement because, like those of Sodom and Gomorrah, they went after "strange flesh," but he actually references the Enoch source directly, yet you're still denying it's the same angelic fall and calling it a coincidence. And your argument is that, since they didn't go into extended detail about what the angels did, it has to be a different account.
I think the argument is similar to the idea that "correlation does not prove causation". Those who take a correlation and run with it to mean causation committ a logical error.
In other words, an author in the NT can reference extra-biblical material without ascribing to the greater story / 'truth' / whole account in that extra-biblical material.
Perhaps you wouldn't mind showing the quotes from 2 Peter and Jude, cross-referencing them with the book of enoch, and showing how it proves that Peter and Jude believed the greater story in the book of enoch...?
Originally posted by seanD
You're denying that there is any connection and calling it a coincidence.
I don't think anybody is denying that there is possibly a connection and calling it a coincidence. What I think is clear is that we shouldn't jump to conclusions based on such little data.
See, the issue is that you are saying that there isn't only a connection...but you are claiming to know what exactly that connection is, as well as the nature of that connection (you claim that Jude and Peter referenced enoch because they ascribe to the greater story in enoch)
Last edited by Phat8594; August 10th 2012 at 02:11 PM.
Re: Why Genesis 6 is not referring to the sons of Shem
Originally posted by Phat8594
I think the argument is similar to the idea that "correlation does not prove causation". Those who take a correlation and run with it to mean causation committ a logical error.
In other words, an author in the NT can reference extra-biblical material without ascribing to the greater story / 'truth' / whole account in that extra-biblical material.
Perhaps you wouldn't mind showing the quotes from 2 Peter and Jude, cross-referencing them with the book of enoch, and showing how it proves that Peter and Jude believed the greater story in the book of enoch...?
I don't think anybody is denying that there is possibly a connection and calling it a coincidence. What I think is clear is that we shouldn't jump to conclusions based on such little data.
See, the issue is that you are saying that there isn't only a connection...but you are claiming to know what exactly that connection is, as well as the nature of that connection (you claim that Jude and Peter referenced enoch because they ascribe to the greater story in enoch)
I think it's not the "greater story in Enoch", but rather a very specific part of that story, namely that angels interbred with humans. IMO the Biblical text supports the angel human hybrid position. There are things like the fact that the Septuagint translated Nephilim as "gigantes" which was later changed to "giants", but actually means Titans. The Titans were defeated by Zeus and the other gods, and were sentenced to Tartarus, which is what the original text in 2 Peter is often translated as hell. So you have not only Biblical textual support, but you have some parallels in other ANE texts.
Re: Why Genesis 6 is not referring to the sons of Shem
Instead of arguing whether or not Jude and Peter believed in the "greater story of Enoch" why don't we discuss what Jude means when he writes in Jude 1:6 that the angels in question "since they in the same way as these [Sodom and Gomorrah] indulged in gross immorality and went after strange flesh" (NASB), or as the ESV puts it: "just as Sodom and Gomorrah and the surrounding cities, which likewise indulged in sexual immorality and pursued unnatural desire"
It would seem that if translations such as the ESV are correct (I.e translations that seem to give support for the notion that the sin the angels were guilty of were sexual immorality of some sort), then what Jude is claiming is that the angels who are kept in "eternal chains" are in chains because they, like Sodom and Gomorrah, indulged in sexual immorality and pursued unnatural desire (or more literally, went after strange flesh). If that is indeed what Jude is claiming, then the theory of angels having sex with women isn't really that far-fetched.
Re: Why Genesis 6 is not referring to the sons of Shem
Originally posted by seanD
You're making the same argument Sparko made, but I expected much better from you. It's an argument from silence. They had no reason to give details about the specific act because it had nothing to do with the overall message. Peter was addressing the judgement of Noah's flood as precursor to the coming judgement, but he wasn't being specific about any particular immoral acts. Jude was addressing it as an example of how God spares no one who is disobedient (though he does reference the fact they went after "strange flesh"). The context is clear. You're denying it because it brings up issues of inerrancy.
You seem to have 'argument from silence' backward. An argument from silence is normally a fallacy, because you prove a position positively, not just by showing a lack of evidence for some particular alternative position. Occasionally, it's possible to positively prove that there ought to have been something besides silence in a particular situation, so that the silence itself becomes positive proof. You have not offered positive proof of that nature, so silence remains simply inconclusive silence which does not support any particular view, whether your or mine.
I don’t think this thread is any different than the myriad of other threads about trivial subjects, such as the countless Calvinism vs. Arminianism debates. In fact, I think the exchanges in here have been somewhat mild compared to some of those debates. That’s what goes on here at Tweb and that's what makes a thread interesting.
The Calvinist/Arminian debates concern complex philosophical conundra which many Scriptures touch directly and indirectly. This thread, on the other hand, is about a matter of historical fact discussed specifically in one 4-verse passage, extremely short on detail.
Re: Why Genesis 6 is not referring to the sons of Shem
As we see, the bulk of Jude is given to a description of the problems being caused in a church by some bad apples. They are compared to the rebellious Israelites that God judged in the wilderness (v5), to the rebellious angels that God judged (v6), to sexually immoral Soddom and Gommorah which God judged (v7-8), to Cain (v11), to Balaam (v11), to rebels against Moses (v11), and to God's enemies in the First Book of Enoch (v14-16). Their specific sins include grumbling, nitpicking, boasting, and flattery (v16).
The common thread connecting all these examples is not sexual perversion, but sin and rebellion in a more general sense. The "in a similar way" connecting the angels of verse 6 with Sodom in Gomorrah in verse 7 is not sexuality, but sin inevitably leading to judgment, which is the theme of the passage.
Re: Why Genesis 6 is not referring to the sons of Shem
Originally posted by Chrawnus
Instead of arguing whether or not Jude and Peter believed in the "greater story of Enoch" why don't we discuss what Jude means when he writes in Jude 1:6 that the angels in question "since they in the same way as these [Sodom and Gomorrah] indulged in gross immorality and went after strange flesh" (NASB), or as the ESV puts it: "just as Sodom and Gomorrah and the surrounding cities, which likewise indulged in sexual immorality and pursued unnatural desire"
It would seem that if translations such as the ESV are correct (I.e translations that seem to give support for the notion that the sin the angels were guilty of were sexual immorality of some sort), then what Jude is claiming is that the angels who are kept in "eternal chains" are in chains because they, like Sodom and Gomorrah, indulged in sexual immorality and pursued unnatural desire (or more literally, went after strange flesh). If that is indeed what Jude is claiming, then the theory of angels having sex with women isn't really that far-fetched.
I don't think you even need the reference to the "flesh violation" part in Jude for it to be an extraordinary coincidence that Peter and Jude are describing a different angelic fall and judgement than the tradition similarly found in Enoch. The denial of something so obvious is really strange to me. I notice that RB also has a problem accepting that the warring princes described in Daniel are demons (we've had this discussion in the past), and that really threw me for a loop that he could actually deny something that was pretty obvious; that Michael and Gabriel weren't fighting a human prince. So I'm wondering if there's some conflict of doctrine here. I could imagine there are a whole lot of Christians that are uncomfortable with the idea that sovereign supernatural entities could appear on earth against God’s volition and distort his creation that way, and a way that actually forced God to take the most extreme action to stop it. Could there be a conflict with Calvinism, for example?
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