Douglas Moo, in his commentary about the Book of Galatians, says that "under the law" means "under the authority of the law." He goes on to write, "The claim this phrase makes is the natural corollary to the salvation-historical argument of 3:15-25: since the time of the law is at the end, believers are no longer subject to its authority. Of course, this claim must be carefully nuanced so as to not to detract from the continuing general authority of the OT in the lives of believers and in order to do justice to NT texts suggesting that the OT law has some kind of continuing ethical import for believers (see esp. James 1:21-25; 2:8-13). The OT law has no direct authority over the believer but continues to be an indirect source (under the authority of NT teaching) for the moral life."
How is the Old Testament an indirect source for the moral life? Does this mean that the OT commands are not to be obeyed unless the NT repeats it?
How is the Old Testament an indirect source for the moral life? Does this mean that the OT commands are not to be obeyed unless the NT repeats it?
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