John 20:28, My Lord and My God

[37818]

Saying the word (Jesus) be God and be God in John 1:1-2 means there is more than one God which is against the fact that God is one God in 1 Timothy 2:5 that "God is one God"

Absolutly not. There is only one God. And the Word, John 1:1-3,, is the sole access to God, John 14:6.

[Same Hakeem]

Absolutly not. There is only one God. And the Word, John 1:1-3,, is the sole access to God, John 14:6.

If the Father is the "ONLY TRUE GOD" in John 17-1-3, how can Jesus be with God if Jesus is God?

[Christian3]

If the Father is the "ONLY TRUE GOD" in John 17-1-3, how can Jesus be with God if Jesus is God?

Jesus is the eternal Word of God. The Word of God is eternal. The Word became flesh.

[37818]

If the Father is the "ONLY TRUE GOD" in John 17-1-3, how can Jesus be with God if Jesus is God?

always been with God has to also to be God with the God or would not to have been always with the God. see Colossians 1:14-18.

[Sparko]

Hakeem's bible:

bibiecensored.jpg

[Christian3]

If the Father is the "ONLY TRUE GOD" in John 17-1-3, how can Jesus be with God if Jesus is God?

[Same Hakeem]

You claiming "YHWH is the only true God. Jesus called Him Father. The one true God is one God in three persons, Father His Word (son by relationship) and His spirit" is not correct biblically because this one true God is ONLY the Father because Jesus described the Father as "THE ONLY TRUE GOD" in John 17:1-3. Secodn, the Holy Spirit cannot be God because Jesus denied that anyone knows when his second coming "BUT ONLY THE FATHER" in Matthew 24:36 where Jesus said "of that day and that hour no one knows not even the angels in heaven BUT ONLY THE FATHER"

[37818]

You claiming "YHWH is the only true God. Jesus called Him Father. The one true God is one God in three persons, Father His Word (son by relationship) and His spirit" is not correct biblically because this one true God is ONLY the Father because Jesus described the Father as "THE ONLY TRUE GOD" in John 17:1-3. Secodn, the Holy Spirit cannot be God because Jesus denied that anyone knows when his second coming "BUT ONLY THE FATHER" in Matthew 24:36 where Jesus said "of that day and that hour no one knows not even the angels in heaven BUT ONLY THE FATHER"

Jesus explained this to His disciples, Acts 1:7, ". . . And he said unto them, It is not for you to know the times or the seasons, which the Father hath put in his own power. . . ." The Son is not the Father.

[Same Hakeem]

Jesus is the eternal Word of God. The Word of God is eternal. The Word became flesh.

According to John 1:1-2, the Word (i.e. Jesus) was with God and the Word was God. This requires two GODS, which is polytheism.

[Same Hakeem]

Jesus explained this to His disciples, Acts 1:7, ". . . And he said unto them, It is not for you to know the times or the seasons, which the Father hath put in his own power. . . ." The Son is not the Father.

You saying "The Son is not the Father" is true and the Son CANNOT be God because Jesus said in Rev 3:21 " I was victorious and sat down with my Father on his throne" proving that since God is one, Jesus cannot be God and be with God the Father.

[37818]

You saying "The Son is not the Father" is true and the Son CANNOT be God because Jesus said in Rev 3:21 " I was victorious and sat down with my Father on his throne" proving that since God is one, Jesus cannot be God and be with God the Father.

Well what you are failing to understand is that the Person of the Son is both not God and and God to mankind. In the words of Jesus, John 14:6, "I am the way, the truth, and the life: no man cometh unto the Father, but by me."

So to put it simply, except you also accept Jesus as the same God you are rejectiong God the Father. Even though the Son is not the Father.

[Hypatia_Alexandria]

LordLordwhen will the Lord come?

[37818]

That is true. Lord being the man, and also being God.
See Matthew 22:43-45, verse 44, the Greek word for Lord is used once of God [YHWH] and then of the man whom David calls Lord. See also Psalms 110:1. Acts 2:34.

[Hypatia_Alexandria]

That is true. Lord being the man, and also being God.
See Matthew 22:43-45, verse 44, the Greek word for Lord is used once of God [YHWH] and then of the man whom David calls Lord. See also Psalms 110:1. Acts 2:34.

Of course it could be a variant on the mode of address demanded by Domitian. Suetonius in The Twelve Caesars recounts the following:

"With equal arrogance, when he dictated the form of a letter to be used by his procurators, he began it thus: " Our lord and god commands so and so;" whence it became a rule that no one should style him otherwise either in writing or speaking."

[37818]

Of course it could be a variant on the mode of address demanded by Domitian. Suetonius in The Twelve Caesars recounts the following:

"With equal arrogance, when he dictated the form of a letter to be used by his procurators, he began it thus: " Our lord and god commands so and so;" whence it became a rule that no one should style him otherwise either in writing or speaking."

What is its dating?

In any case that does not change the interpretation I gave, Jesus as both the man and God the Creator. 1 Timothy 2:5, being the man and Colossians 1:16-17, being the Creator, John 1:10.