How do we determine whether the Bible is the Word of God?

[tabibito]

No, it's not undeniable. It is probably not the case that, in 1 Cor. 7:12, Paul is saying, "Now this part is just my opinion." Rather, he is probably clarifying that he is expanding on and applying what the Lord taught as recorded in the Gospels (vv. 10-11).

Ah - I had forgotten that one. Make it two places - and the argument presented for that interpretation of 1 Cor 7:12 ignores the contrast with 1 Cor 7:10: "I say (not I, but the Lord..."

Also 1 Corinthians 7:25, I have NO decree from the Lord, I give the OPINION as one who by the Lord's mercy is trustworthy.

[Bibleuser]

Not sure if this is the best sub-forum but hey ho.

I'm from a Protestant background and recently came across a Roman Catholic argument that we could determine that the scriptures were highly reliable using the standard tools of history and logic but it couldn't tell us that they were the inspired Word of God. The article claimed that they only way we can be sure that it is the Word of God because the Church (capital C for a reason) was founded by Christ so has the authority to declare it to be so. However this still doesn't answer the fundamental epistemological question of how does one move from solid truthful documents to the inspired Word of God.

My tentative suggestion is that prophets of God are accompanied with signs and wonders to declare they're God's agent however we would likley only have the testimony of the prophet to distinguish between what were his words alone and those inspired by God.

Any thoughts on the matter would be much appreciated.

One way the fulfilment of prophecy.
BU

[Rushing Jaws]

Not sure if this is the best sub-forum but hey ho.

I'm from a Protestant background and recently came across a Roman Catholic argument that we could determine that the scriptures were highly reliable using the standard tools of history and logic but it couldn't tell us that they were the inspired Word of God. The article claimed that they only way we can be sure that it is the Word of God because the Church (capital C for a reason) was founded by Christ so has the authority to declare it to be so. However this still doesn't answer the fundamental epistemological question of how does one move from solid truthful documents to the inspired Word of God.

My tentative suggestion is that prophets of God are accompanied with signs and wonders to declare they're God's agent however we would likley only have the testimony of the prophet to distinguish between what were his words alone and those inspired by God.

Any thoughts on the matter would be much appreciated.

V. We may be moved and induced by the testimony of the Church to an high and reverent esteem of the Holy Scripture.
http://www.reformed.org/documents/wc...ofs/index.html

[Same Hakeem]

Indeed the word of God cannot have contradictions. Therefore, the Bible today is not fully inspired by God because for example 2 Kings 8:26 and 2 Choronicles 22:2 contradict each other on the age of Ahaziah (42 or 22) when began to rule. 2 kings 8:26 says "Ahaziah was 22 when he began to rule" while 2 choronicles 22:2 says " Ahaziah was 42 when he began to rule"

[rogue06]

Once again the elephant in the room that you appear to be grimly determined to ignore is that by the criteria that you establish the qur'an is not inspired.

[KingsGambit]

You've posted that same argument at least 10 times probably. It doesn't become more convincing every time you post it.

[Same Hakeem]

You've posted that same argument at least 10 times probably. It doesn't become more convincing every time you post it.

Whether million times or one time, the fact remains the Bible today is not fully inspired by God because as an example 2 Kings 8:26 and 2 Choronicles 22:2 contradict each other on the age of Ahaziah (42 or 22) when began to rule. 2 kings 8:26 says "Ahaziah was 22 when he began to rule" while 2 choronicles 22:2 says " Ahaziah was 42 when he began to rule"

[Cerebrum123]

Whether million times or one time, the fact remains the Bible today is not fully inspired by God because as an example 2 Kings 8:26 and 2 Choronicles 22:2 contradict each other on the age of Ahaziah (42 or 22) when began to rule. 2 kings 8:26 says "Ahaziah was 22 when he began to rule" while 2 choronicles 22:2 says " Ahaziah was 42 when he began to rule"

That is not a fact, it's your illogical assertion. Saying it over and over again after being told that it's only your own very narrow view of inspiration that is effected, and would hurt the Quran even more severely just shows you to be playing dishonest "gotcha games".

[Same Hakeem]

Cerebrum123 claiming "That is not a fact" is refuted by the fact that if you pick a KJV or RSV Bible and you go to 2 Kings 8:26 and 2 Chronicles 22:2, you will surely see a flat out contradiction in relation to the age of Ahaziah when he began to rule. 2 kings 8:26 says "Ahaziah was 22 when he began to rule" while 2 choronicles 22:2 says " Ahaziah was 42 when he began to rule." For any sane person, 42 and 22 are not same. Therefore, the fact remains that the Bible today is not fully inspired by God.

[Cerebrum123]

Cerebrum123 claiming "That is not a fact" is refuted by the fact that if you pick a KJV or RSV Bible and you go to 2 Kings 8:26 and 2 Chronicles 22:2, you will surely see a flat out contradiction in relation to the age of Ahaziah when he began to rule. 2 kings 8:26 says "Ahaziah was 22 when he began to rule" while 2 choronicles 22:2 says " Ahaziah was 42 when he began to rule." For any sane person, 42 and 22 are not same. Therefore, the fact remains that the Bible today is not fully inspired by God.

No, it merely your understanding of innerancy that would be falsified, not that of most of the Christians on TWeb. Your argument also undermines the Quran, which you still claim to be the inerrant word of Allah far worse than it does the Bible.

[Same Hakeem]

cerebrum123 claiming "No, it merely your understanding of innerancy that would be falsified, not that of most of the Christians on TWeb" is a baseless claim because he did not show us, for example, how 42 and 22 can be same in relation to the age of Ahaziah in 2 Chronicles 22:2 and 2 Kings 8:26 respectively.

[Cerebrum123]

cerebrum123 claiming "No, it merely your understanding of innerancy that would be falsified, not that of most of the Christians on TWeb" is a baseless claim because he did not show us, for example, how 42 and 22 can be same in relation to the age of Ahaziah in 2 Chronicles 22:2 and 2 Kings 8:26 respectively.

I've answered you last time you brought this up. It's a copyist error. Ancient Hebrew used letters instead of numerals like we do today for their "numbers". Many of which were the same "letter", but with the different vowel markings since they had a consonantal language.

[Same Hakeem]

cereburm123 writing " It's a copyist error" proves there is a contradiction between 2 Chronicles 22:2 and 2 Kings 8:26.

There are many other kinds of contradictions as well in the Bible. For example, while 1 Timothy 6:16 says "no one has seen God nor can anyone see him", Job said to God in Job 42:5 "my eyes have seen you" and "those that are pure in heart will see God".

[Cerebrum123]

cereburm123 writing " It's a copyist error" proves there is a contradiction between 2 Chronicles 22:2 and 2 Kings 8:26.

There are many other kinds of contradictions as well in the Bible. For example, while 1 Timothy 6:16 says "no one has seen God nor can anyone see him", Job said to God in Job 42:5 "my eyes have seen you" and "those that are pure in heart will see God".

You have shown time and time again that you aren't actually asking questions in good faith. You've also shown an abysmal understanding of all that you try to speak about. You aren't worth wasting more time on.

[Same Hakeem]

Cerebrum123 writing "You have shown time and time again that you aren't actually asking questions in good faith" is not true in the first place as I have never asked questions. I have shown that there are contradictions in the Bible and hence the Bible today cannot be fully inspired.