Originally posted by seer
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The moral code itself cannot be described as anything but subjective because (as we both have agreed) it is a function of mind. It is an evaluation of actions as good or not good, which is a value judgment - and value is subjective. I have noted (and you agreed) that even god's moral code would be subjective to god. Indeed, you have said repeatedly that you do not use the term "objective" in relation to morality, for that very reason.
There is another way "objective" applies. Your moral code is "objective" to me. Your moral code is unrelated to my thought process - and independent of my choices. If there were a god, that god's code would be "objective" to me. The only moral code that is subject is my own - and yours is to you - and god's is to god.
Now - if the argument is that my position is binary because I am arguing that MY moral code is purely "subjective" and I do not permit "objective" to be part of that process, then (other than what I outlined above), I guess I have to plead guilty. It is not clear to me how something can be simultaneously subjective and objective in the same place at the same time in the same way. The very terms (and the law of noncontradiction) would seem to preclude it.
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