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No. It's Not The End Of The World

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  • #31
    Originally posted by Scrawly View Post
    1) OK, so Jesus is coming "quickly" in such a manner that everyone will see him (24:27), not like the false Messiah's in verses 24:23-26 who are situated in certain places so that only some can see them. How does this demonstrate that his coming is yet future?
    The reference 24:27 refers to how the Lord's coming will be. Verse 14 states, ". . . gospel of the kingdom shall be preached in all the world for a witness unto all nations; and then shall the end come." The first part can and has been argued that has been done. The end has not happened yet for which Peter wrote of.
    2) 1Pet. 4:7 has stated to his readers that "the end of all things is near", so this really means...?
    As I said, the second coming. Which Peter refers to again in his second letter, ". . . be not ignorant of this one thing, that one day is with the Lord as a thousand years, and a thousand years as one day. . . ." and ". . . the day of the Lord will come as a thief in the night; in the which the heavens shall pass away with a great noise, and the elements shall melt with fervent heat, the earth also and the works that are therein shall be burned up. . . ." 2 Peter 3:8, 10, verse 10 referring to the Lord's coming upon the lost and the judgment which follows after the thousand years (Revelation 20:4-11). So it reads.
    . . . the gospel of Christ: for it is the power of God unto salvation to every one that believeth; . . . -- Romans 1:16 KJV

    . . . that Christ died for our sins according to the scriptures; And that he was buried, and that he rose again the third day according to the scriptures: . . . -- 1 Corinthians 15:3-4 KJV

    Whosoever believeth that Jesus is the Christ is born of God: . . . -- 1 John 5:1 KJV

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    • #32
      Originally posted by 37818 View Post
      The reference 24:27 refers to how the Lord's coming will be.
      Correct. His coming will be visible to all. Unlike the false Christ's in 24:23-26.

      Verse 14 states, ". . . gospel of the kingdom shall be preached in all the world for a witness unto all nations; and then shall the end come." The first part can and has been argued that has been done.
      Right, the gospel was preached in all known world at the time as Col. 1:23 states: "if indeed you continue in the faith, stable and steadfast, not shifting from the hope of the gospel that you have heard, which has been proclaimed in all creation under heaven, and of which I, Paul became a minister."

      However, please note Matt. 10:22-23: "and you will be hated by all for my name’s sake. But the one who endures to the end will be saved. When they persecute you in one town, flee to the next, for truly, I say to you, you will not have gone through all the towns of Israel before the Son of Man comes." This parallels Matt. 24:9-14 and likewise has the imminent coming of the Son of man in view 24:34.

      The end has not happened yet for which Peter wrote of.
      So in Peter's first letter when he stated in 4:7 that "the end of all things is at hand/near", he meant that "at hand/near" can and does mean "thousands of years"?

      As I said, the second coming. Which Peter refers to again in his second letter, ". . . be not ignorant of this one thing, that one day is with the Lord as a thousand years, and a thousand years as one day. . . ." and ". . . the day of the Lord will come as a thief in the night; in the which the heavens shall pass away with a great noise, and the elements shall melt with fervent heat, the earth also and the works that are therein shall be burned up. . . ." 2 Peter 3:8, 10, verse 10 referring to the Lord's coming upon the lost and the judgment which follows after the thousand years (Revelation 20:4-11). So it reads.
      Yes 2Peter was partly written to explain the delay in Messiah's return. The delay caused mockers to emerge 2Pet. 3:3-4. Peter draws upon Ps. 90:4 to comfort the recipients of his letter(s). Please also note that Peter states one day is like a thousand years and vice versa. He is making an analogy not a literal equation. The concluding exhortations in 2Pet. 3:14-15 go on to give the impression that the coming of the Lord is still at hand and this connects back to 1Pet. 4:7 when he stated that the end of all things is indeed near. Preterists see this as the end/collapse of (the old covenant) religious-political structure (see Isa. 65:17 for example), however it has to be established by context that Peter is using the terminology in this way.
      Last edited by Scrawly; 04-09-2018, 04:44 PM.

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      • #33
        Originally posted by Scrawly View Post
        I think such an interpretation fails to account for the wider context. In the parables immediately following: Matt. 24:45-51, 25:1-13;14-30 we have Jesus driving home the importance of keeping awake and staying ready because they will not know the day or hour. These parables reiterate what was expressed in Matt. 24:36-44, namely be ready and keep awake because the Messiah is returning like a thief in the night who will then proceed to judge the righteous and wicked (Matt. 24:50-51, 25:10-12;30;31-46). I therefore fail to see how the latter part of Matthew could have anything other than the bodily return of Messiah in view.
        It could. I know Gentry has a new book coming out on this and I believe he and Demar take opposite sides.



        Yes, but it is difficult to accept that the angels spoken of in Matt. 24:31 are human messengers when the context demands otherwise (Matt. 25:31-46). Let us also recall a similar account in Matt. 13:36-43. In verses 41-43 we have a similar scenario playing out as the one found in Matt. 24:31 where the Son of Man sends out his angels who this time gather the wicked and toss them into the furnace of fire where there will be weeping and gnashing of teeth (13:42), and then the righteous will dwell in eternal bliss with their Father in the kingdom, which connects to the imagery in Rev. 22:3-5. Matthew 13:36-43 is dealing with the "end of the age" (13:39-40) which is clearly in relation to the eternal fate of the wicked and the righteous. Matthew 23 is likewise dealing with "the end of the age" (24:3). And it appears that "the end of the age" was to occur "immediately after the tribulation/suffering of those days" when Jerusalem was destroyed.
        I think there are actually different ages. There's the age of the Law and the age of the Messiah. Similar language can be used for both.

        Now I know partial preterists believe in a two age model that states God executed his wrath upon apostate Judaism via the destruction of Jerusalem and the temple in 70 AD which ushered in the "age to come", the age we are now living in; however, I find that the difference between "this age" and the "age to come" is the difference between "the temporal" and "the eternal" in the bible so we cannot currently be living in "the age to come" -- see for example, Luke 20:34-36.
        I would have to see more to reach a conclusion.

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