I have read through all of the responses in this thread, and given them thought. I'll put my general response here, and then I believe I will generally disconnect from this discussion. It is a duplicate of a discussion already had in another venue, and I am not seeing any significant value to rehashing what has already been said beyond this post. I will monitor the discussion and read what is said. If someone asks a direct question that I have not already answered, I'll be happy to answer it.
Person A and Person B are adults who are not related to one another in any way, who are in love, and who wish to get married and be intimate with one another. Is that moral?
You will note that for most (all?) people, if one is a male and the other is a female, the answer is "yes." But if both are males or both are females, for some people the answer becomes "no." This means that the morality of the situation is being determined by the genetic coding of the people involved. You cannot escape this reality.
Now consider the same situation 60 years ago. If I had told you that one was male and one was female, but one was also black and the other white, these people too would have been told it was immoral by many. But if they were both black or both white, it would have been moral. Today we look at that and say, "why does the race of the people marrying matter? You cannot make a situation moral in one case and immoral in another simply based on the genetic coding (for race) of the people involved.
So why are these situations any different? Why is it bigotry/prejudice to declare a marriage (and intimacy) immoral on the basis of race of the participants (which is a genetically coded attribute), but it is not prejudice to do so on the basis of the sex of the participants. If you are going to be consistent - declaring an act immoral cannot be done on the basis of the genetic coding of its participants. Either these are both bigotry/prejudice - or they are neither bigotry/prejudice.
I believe it is the latter - and for Christians to say otherwise is to be inconsistent in how they define morality.
The prejudice of the bakers was not about who they were willing or not willing to sell the cake to - it was about their unwillingness to make a wedding cake based on the sex of the two people being married. It doesn't matter who you insert into the buying process. I gave the example, in a previous chain, of the restaurant owner who refuses to serve food to black people. You cannot claim they are not prejudiced and dealing with everyone equally if they refuse to sell food to a white person who is going to give it to a black person. It's not about the buyer - it's about the consumer. Whether it is a black person buying the food - or a white person buying it for a black person - if the restaurant owner is refusing to sell because it will be consumed by a black person - they are being prejudiced/bigoted.
Likewise, if a baker who sells wedding cakes is refusing to sell it because the two people getting married share common sex genes, they are being bigoted/prejudiced. You cannot "escape" by claiming they won't sell the cake to anyone - they are still discriminating against people on the basis of their sex.
That does not mean anyone is being "forced" to do labor. Bakers can bake many things. Bakers can bake many cakes. But if they bake "wedding cakes," they need to provide them to all buyers without discrimination. To do otherwise is to return us to the age when a man (or woman) could be denied service because they were black, Hispanic, a woman, a short person, or any other attribute that places the person in a class of which their membership is not optional.
It's just a wedding cake. Not a "same sex" wedding cake.
ETA: I further believe that love between two people is not conditioned on the specific equipment present between their legs. I do not recall a single place in the Christian bible where Jesus spoke out and said, "love one another - but not too much if you are of the same sex." Paul added that in his epistle.
Person A and Person B are adults who are not related to one another in any way, who are in love, and who wish to get married and be intimate with one another. Is that moral?
You will note that for most (all?) people, if one is a male and the other is a female, the answer is "yes." But if both are males or both are females, for some people the answer becomes "no." This means that the morality of the situation is being determined by the genetic coding of the people involved. You cannot escape this reality.
Now consider the same situation 60 years ago. If I had told you that one was male and one was female, but one was also black and the other white, these people too would have been told it was immoral by many. But if they were both black or both white, it would have been moral. Today we look at that and say, "why does the race of the people marrying matter? You cannot make a situation moral in one case and immoral in another simply based on the genetic coding (for race) of the people involved.
So why are these situations any different? Why is it bigotry/prejudice to declare a marriage (and intimacy) immoral on the basis of race of the participants (which is a genetically coded attribute), but it is not prejudice to do so on the basis of the sex of the participants. If you are going to be consistent - declaring an act immoral cannot be done on the basis of the genetic coding of its participants. Either these are both bigotry/prejudice - or they are neither bigotry/prejudice.
I believe it is the latter - and for Christians to say otherwise is to be inconsistent in how they define morality.
The prejudice of the bakers was not about who they were willing or not willing to sell the cake to - it was about their unwillingness to make a wedding cake based on the sex of the two people being married. It doesn't matter who you insert into the buying process. I gave the example, in a previous chain, of the restaurant owner who refuses to serve food to black people. You cannot claim they are not prejudiced and dealing with everyone equally if they refuse to sell food to a white person who is going to give it to a black person. It's not about the buyer - it's about the consumer. Whether it is a black person buying the food - or a white person buying it for a black person - if the restaurant owner is refusing to sell because it will be consumed by a black person - they are being prejudiced/bigoted.
Likewise, if a baker who sells wedding cakes is refusing to sell it because the two people getting married share common sex genes, they are being bigoted/prejudiced. You cannot "escape" by claiming they won't sell the cake to anyone - they are still discriminating against people on the basis of their sex.
That does not mean anyone is being "forced" to do labor. Bakers can bake many things. Bakers can bake many cakes. But if they bake "wedding cakes," they need to provide them to all buyers without discrimination. To do otherwise is to return us to the age when a man (or woman) could be denied service because they were black, Hispanic, a woman, a short person, or any other attribute that places the person in a class of which their membership is not optional.
It's just a wedding cake. Not a "same sex" wedding cake.
ETA: I further believe that love between two people is not conditioned on the specific equipment present between their legs. I do not recall a single place in the Christian bible where Jesus spoke out and said, "love one another - but not too much if you are of the same sex." Paul added that in his epistle.
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