I'm preparing a month long study for a class. I have a question about this verse. One of the authors of my resource material contends that the original Greek reads differently. He asserts that Jesus does not say ..."he was born blind so that the works of God might be revealed in him." that the translators insert that for clarification. He contends the passage if translated literally would be more akin to"...let the works of God be revealed in him." Can anyone here confirm or deny his assertion? I greatly respect this author, but I just do not have the ability to confirm or deny.
thanks!
thanks!
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