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Thread: John 9:3

  1. #21
    Must...have...caffeine One Bad Pig's Avatar
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    Quote Originally Posted by Littlejoe View Post
    Well...that's what I thought...

    I'm still in the process of forming this argument...so bear with me.

    How is it NOT deterministic whether God actively wills something or passively wills something? God knowing it was going to happen and allowing it is the very essence of "the Problem with evil" argument.
    I don't see open theism as a legitimate way around it, so I suspect I'm not going to be able to help you further. I had forgotten you espoused open theism, which regards even Arminianism as deterministic.
    Enter the Church and wash away your sins. For here there is a hospital and not a court of law. Do not be ashamed to enter the Church; be ashamed when you sin, but not when you repent. St. John Chrysostom

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  2. #22
    Professor and Chaplain Littlejoe's Avatar
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    Quote Originally Posted by One Bad Pig View Post
    I don't see open theism as a legitimate way around it, so I suspect I'm not going to be able to help you further. I had forgotten you espoused open theism, which regards even Arminianism as deterministic.
    Yeah...and most of the people in my church would fall into the spectrum of Arminianism. The more I study it, I find it increasingly difficult to answer the problem of Evil adequately with OUT Open Theism. So, I have to word it carefully to not stray (at least to far) into O.T. Ascribing evil acts to anyone other than evil humans or evil demonic forces implicates God at least as an accessory IMO.
    "What has the Church gained if it is popular, but there is no conviction, no repentance, no power?" - A.W. Tozer

    "... there are two parties in Washington, the stupid party and the evil party, who occasionally get together and do something both stupid and evil, and this is called bipartisanship." - Everett Dirksen

  3. #23
    tWebber
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    Quote Originally Posted by Littlejoe View Post
    I'm preparing a month long study for a class. I have a question about this verse. One of the authors of my resource material contends that the original Greek reads differently. He asserts that Jesus does not say ..."he was born blind so that the works of God might be revealed in him." that the translators insert that for clarification.
    He is right. Here's the Greek:

    ἀπεκρίθη Ἰησοῦς Οὔτε οὗτος ἥμαρτεν οὔτε οἱ γονεῖς αὐτοῦ, ἀλλ ἵνα φανερωθῇ τὰ ἔργα τοῦ Θεοῦ ἐν αὐτῷ.
    But since this verse does not exist in a vacuum and builds up on the question to which Jesus was responding , namely as to why the man was born blind ("who sinned, this man or his parents, that he was born blind ?") it makes common sense to argue that Jesus was answering their question and saying "He was born blind so that the works of God might be revealed in him", with the words in bold taken to be implied in Jesus's response.



    He contends the passage if translated literally would be more akin to"...let the works of God be revealed in him." Can anyone here confirm or deny his assertion? I greatly respect this author, but I just do not have the ability to confirm or deny.

    thanks!
    No, there is no imperative here, for starters. The verse literally translated would be as follows --

    "Answered Jesus, Neither he sinned nor his parents, but that the works of God might be displayed in him."

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