Britannica describes it thus:
They go on to note an explanation for it in materialist terms. However, I do not think that any materialist explanation for it makes sense. It would mean that you are feeling (or sensing, if you prefer) something in an area where you do not exist. The idea of it being a hallucination also doesn't make sense because you can't hallucinate a sensation (with respect to yourself). To show this, assume that you can hallucinate a sensation (w.r.t yourself).
So
(1) I hallucinate a sensation (w.r.t yourself).
hallucinate means to sense (i.e. see, feel, hear etc.) something that does not exist
So
(2) I sense a sensation that does not exist (w.r.t yourself).
follows from (1).
To sense something is to have a sensation of something.
Thus,
(3) I have a sensation of a sensation that does not exist (w.r.t yourself).
follows from (2)
But (3) is gibberish. So, hallucinating a sensation (w.r.t yourself) has no meaning. So you can't do it. QED
Now
P1: It is possible that you may have a sensation in a region where your body does not exist.
P2: If you perceive a sensation in a region, you have a real sensation in that region.
P3: If you have a real sensation in that region, then you must exist in that region.
C: You exist in a region where your body does not exist. Thus, the soul exists.
P1 is true since phantom limbs exist.
P2 is true since you can't hallucinate a sensation (w.r.t yourself).
P3 is true because if the sensation is real, there must be something in that region experiencing it. It must also be a part of you since you are experiencing a real sensation.
The conclusion follows from the 3 premises.
Thoughts?
They go on to note an explanation for it in materialist terms. However, I do not think that any materialist explanation for it makes sense. It would mean that you are feeling (or sensing, if you prefer) something in an area where you do not exist. The idea of it being a hallucination also doesn't make sense because you can't hallucinate a sensation (with respect to yourself). To show this, assume that you can hallucinate a sensation (w.r.t yourself).
So
(1) I hallucinate a sensation (w.r.t yourself).
hallucinate means to sense (i.e. see, feel, hear etc.) something that does not exist
So
(2) I sense a sensation that does not exist (w.r.t yourself).
follows from (1).
To sense something is to have a sensation of something.
Thus,
(3) I have a sensation of a sensation that does not exist (w.r.t yourself).
follows from (2)
But (3) is gibberish. So, hallucinating a sensation (w.r.t yourself) has no meaning. So you can't do it. QED
Now
P1: It is possible that you may have a sensation in a region where your body does not exist.
P2: If you perceive a sensation in a region, you have a real sensation in that region.
P3: If you have a real sensation in that region, then you must exist in that region.
C: You exist in a region where your body does not exist. Thus, the soul exists.
P1 is true since phantom limbs exist.
P2 is true since you can't hallucinate a sensation (w.r.t yourself).
P3 is true because if the sensation is real, there must be something in that region experiencing it. It must also be a part of you since you are experiencing a real sensation.
The conclusion follows from the 3 premises.
Thoughts?
Comment