Galatians 3:28 states:
"There is neither Jew nor Greek, there is neither slave nor free, there is no male and female, for you are all one in Christ Jesus."
I am just curious if I would be correct in asserting that the couplets Jew/Greek and slave/free are not exactly like male/female.
The latter couplet male/female is linked by the conjunction kai ("and") which indicates the complimentarity of the gender differences whereas the former distinctions - Jew/Greek, slave/free - are utterly eradicated in Christ.
Would this be an accurate reading?
"There is neither Jew nor Greek, there is neither slave nor free, there is no male and female, for you are all one in Christ Jesus."
I am just curious if I would be correct in asserting that the couplets Jew/Greek and slave/free are not exactly like male/female.
The latter couplet male/female is linked by the conjunction kai ("and") which indicates the complimentarity of the gender differences whereas the former distinctions - Jew/Greek, slave/free - are utterly eradicated in Christ.
Would this be an accurate reading?
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