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Thread: Who raised Jesus from the dead?

  1. #201
    tWebber tabibito's Avatar
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    Me: So - If Jesus was wholly man and wholly God, it seems that he would be radically different from any of his brothers.
    Lecturer (Doctorate in Theology): That is correct.
    Me: In that case, I'll have to black out Heb 2:17 from my copy of the Bible
    1 Cor 15:34 εκνηψατε δικαιως και μη αμαρτανετε αγνωσιαν γαρ θεου τινες εχουσιν προς εντροπην υμιν λεγω

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    tWebber Chrawnus's Avatar
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    Quote Originally Posted by firstfloor View Post
    The Trinity is one of the most versatile gods known to man and just about any stunt is easy for Him.
    Even if you intended this as mockery by using the words "versatile" and "stunt" you speak more truthfully than you realize here, with the correction that it should be " the most powerful God known to man", and not "one of the most versatile gods known to man".

    But yes, there's not much, if anything, that is hard for God to accomplish.

  3. #203
    tWebber
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    Quote Originally Posted by Christian3 View Post
    Does this make sense?

    https://carm.org/jesus-raise-himself

    Did Jesus raise Himself from the grave or did God do it?
    by Brad Huston

    Before this question can be addressed directly, we must first agree upon what we mean when we say “God,” and we must agree upon the nature of Jesus. Jesus is, by His very nature, God (Phil. 2:6). “God” is not a person but a title given to the divine nature. There is only one God (Deut. 6:4, Is. 44:6)--one divine nature. However, God exists in three persons, the Trinity. The first person of the Trinity, whom Jesus called the Father, is often referred to as “God,” and rightly so--the Father is God (1 Pet. 1:2-3). However, people often confuse the title “God” as referring only to the Father. The second and third persons of the Trinity, Jesus the Son and the Holy Spirit are also God (Heb. 1:8, Acts 5:3-4). So, there is one God existing in three persons. These persons are all distinct (Matt. 3:16-17). They are all equally God. The divine nature cannot be subdivided; God’s nature is infinite--infinity cannot be subtracted from or added to.

    Though there is one God in three persons, the person of Jesus Christ has two natures. He has the divine nature (as previously demonstrated), but He also has a human nature and is fully human. He was born (Matt. 2:1) and took on human flesh (John 1:14). He suffered physically and emotionally (Heb. 5:7-8). Even after His ascension, He is called “man” (1 Tim. 2:5-6). So, Jesus could operate out of His human nature or His divine nature. As a man, He ate (Luke 24:42-43). As God, He calmed the storm (Matt. 8:26). So, while Christ’s body was dead, He remained alive (since God cannot die). This should not be a great surprise since human souls remain while the body decays (2 Cor. 5:8). Jesus’ human soul remained in the way that all human souls do, while His divine substance remained unchanged (Mal. 3:6, Heb. 13:8).

    So, would it have been possible that Jesus through His divine nature even while His human body lay dead could have displayed His power through resurrection? Absolutely. Jesus, speaking of His body said, “Destroy this temple, and in three days I will raise it up.” (John 2:19) Certainly, it was “God” who raised His body (Rom. 10:9, 1 Pet. 1:21), and Jesus is God. But Scripture also teaches that the Father raised Him (Gal. 1:1; Eph. 1:17, 20). Even the Holy Spirit is said to have raised Him (Romans 8:11). So, the act of raising Jesus from the dead was not the operation merely of one person within the Trinity but was a cooperative act done by the power of the divine substance. The fact that the Bible teaches that God raised Jesus from the dead and that Jesus raised Himself is yet another testament to Christ’s divinity.
    I agree on the above statement that " we must agree upon the nature of Jesus" therefore, to solve this matter entirely is to go to Revelation 3:21. In Revelation 3:21, Jesus said "I was victorious and sat with my Father on his throne" ;therefore, either (i) "God" Jesus sat with God the Father on his throne in Rev 3:21 and then there is more than one God or (ii) Jesus is not God. Since God is only one in 1 Corinthians 8:4, Jesus cannot be God and sat with God the Father on his throne in Revelation 3:21; otherwise, there is more than one God, which is against the Bible in 1 Corinthians 8:4 that God is only one.

  4. #204
    tWebber
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    Quote Originally Posted by Mountain Man View Post
    It depends on what one means by "100% God and 100% human". I take it to mean that Jesus has 100% of the qualities necessary to be God, and 100% of the qualities necessary to be human.
    But this statement is impossible; according to Christianity Jesus died if it was Jesus the God that died on the cross, then we have an impossibility because God cannot die and it was Jesus the man that died, then his death makes no sense to save us because God commanded "every man is to die for his own sin" in 2 Kings 14:6.

  5. #205
    tWebber
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    Quote Originally Posted by tabibito View Post
    Me: So - If Jesus was wholly man and wholly God, it seems that he would be radically different from any of his brothers.
    Lecturer (Doctorate in Theology): That is correct.
    Me: In that case, I'll have to black out Heb 2:17 from my copy of the Bible
    Well, you can't take the bible literally.

  6. #206
    tWebber Rushing Jaws's Avatar
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    Quote Originally Posted by Tassman View Post
    Hence Jesus is simultaneously 'fully God' and 'fully Man', i.e. a logical contradiction.
    In the interests of better understanding between atheists and Christians: where is the logical contradiction ?

    FWIW, IMHO, using a category like percentage to discuss the Incarnation is misleading, because the Incarnation is not quantitative. A lot of things are not - such as certainty.

    The word “simultaneously” may need watching as well, because God, in Trinitarian theism, is not subject to time, nor qualified by it. We humans have to use “tensed” language, because we are subject to time, and qualified by it.
    Last edited by Rushing Jaws; 12-07-2019 at 05:43 PM.

  7. Amen NorrinRadd amen'd this post.
  8. #207
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    Quote Originally Posted by Rushing Jaws View Post
    In the interests of better understanding between atheists and Christians: where is the logical contradiction ?

    FWIW, IMHO, using a category like percentage to discuss the Incarnation is misleading, because the Incarnation is not quantitative. A lot of things are not - such as certainty.

    The word “simultaneously” may need watching as well, because God, in Trinitarian theism, is not subject to time, nor qualified by it. We humans have to use “tensed” language, because we are subject to time, and qualified by it.
    Was Jesus subject to time?

  9. Amen Tassman amen'd this post.
  10. #208
    tWebber Tassman's Avatar
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    Quote Originally Posted by JimL View Post
    Was Jesus subject to time?
    Yes exactly. God the Son was presumably “subject to time”, being fully Man.
    “He felt that his whole life was a kind of dream and he sometimes wondered whose it was and whether they were enjoying it.” - Douglas Adams.

  11. #209
    tWebber NorrinRadd's Avatar
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    Speaking as one who --

    -- has no formal training in "theology" or "apologetics"

    -- has taken a total of two or maybe three philosophy classes, back in the early '80s

    -- has never in my nearly 40 years as a believer been part of a church that holds "creeds" and "confessions" in high regard...


    Discussions like this seem pointless and almost silly. There are certain things that Scripture says pretty clearly. Some of these are hard to reconcile at face value. Attempts to explain or reconcile them involve going beyond what Scripture actually says, and introducing a lot of speculation and magical theologisms like "hypostatic union." And to me, the worst part is that certain of these explanations are taken as uniquely authoritative orthodoxy, on par with the direct words of Scripture itself.
    Geislerminian Antinomian Kenotic Charispneumaticostal Gender Mutualist-Egalitarian.

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  12. #210
    Must...have...caffeine One Bad Pig's Avatar
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    Quote Originally Posted by NorrinRadd View Post
    Speaking as one who --

    -- has no formal training in "theology" or "apologetics"

    -- has taken a total of two or maybe three philosophy classes, back in the early '80s

    -- has never in my nearly 40 years as a believer been part of a church that holds "creeds" and "confessions" in high regard...


    Discussions like this seem pointless and almost silly. There are certain things that Scripture says pretty clearly. Some of these are hard to reconcile at face value. Attempts to explain or reconcile them involve going beyond what Scripture actually says, and introducing a lot of speculation and magical theologisms like "hypostatic union."
    It sounds like you haven't seriously attempted to wrestle with these issues, haven't bothered to attempt to understand other's efforts, and are content to overlook apparent contradictions. Forgive me if I don't find that outlook particularly convincing.
    And to me, the worst part is that certain of these explanations are taken as uniquely authoritative orthodoxy, on par with the direct words of Scripture itself.
    The same Holy Spirit who inspired the Scriptures is fully capable of continuing inspiration in the church, yes?
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