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Believer's Baptism

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  • Baptism is tied in the NT to circumcision: “In him you were also circumcised, in the putting off of the sinful nature, not with a circumcision done by the hands of men but with the circumcision done by Christ, having been buried with him in baptism and raised with him through your faith in the power of God, who raised him from the dead.” (Colossians 2:11-12)
    When you can rule out infant circumcision, I’ll admit you’ve found a good reason to rule out infant baptism. Until then, I think the burden of proof lies on one who insists that we are not to carry out Christ’s command for every soul under our care.

    1. Adult baptism is the only kind with clear NT support - the defence of IB that argues from the mention of the Philippian gaoler’s “household” in Acts 16, is based on an inference from reason, and posits infants in his household for whose existence there is no evidence; the argument is an exercise in wishful thinking;
    And where is your clear scriptural support for denying baptism to infants? An inference from reason, that’s all it is. Excluding a segment of the population because they aren’t mentioned seems a more dangerous precedent that including them all, when Jesus told us to baptize all nations. Let the little children come to me, for the kingdom of God belongs to such as these. Not because they are somehow sinless (or disobedient but unaccountable), but because of the purity and strength and simple trust in a child’s faith. “I tell you the truth, anyone who will not receive the kingdom of God like a little child will never enter it.” Are we being told to become unaccountable like a child, or to have faith like a little child, simple childlike trust? Don’t tell me he’s telling us to become like a two-year old shouting “No” in defiant anger, because being like that is the only way to enter the kingdom of God. Don’t tell me that all children who haven’t reached the age of accountability are models of how a Christian is to behave.

    2. IB allows millions of infants to be baptised who later throw over the Faith they had been baptised into. The result for the life and witness of the Church is, that the Church’s membership includes hordes of baptised unbelievers. This degrades the Church, and makes her evangelising mission a bad joke, because those who have no faith in Christ cannot bear witness to Him. Purely nominal members of the Church should be treated as the heathens they are in fact. There are many “good pagans” - that they are good in many ways, does not make them Christians. “Good pagan” adults who have been baptised as infants, and have given up the Faith they were baptised in, are not Christians in the NT sense, so they cannot accurately be called Christians in any sense worth discussing.
    Where in the world do you get the notion that churches that baptize infants allow them to keep their church membership if they later throw over the faith they’d been baptized into? We have baptism for infants, and then a rite of confirmation, in eighth grade usually, at which time they confirm that the faith into which they were both baptized and raised is they one they promise to be faithful to for the rest of their lives, and they demonstrate their readiness to receive the Lord’s Supper and take on the responsibilities of adult membership. If they fall away before confirmation, they will never be adult members. If they fall away afterwards, they will be disciplined as Jesus instructed in Matthew 18, and if necessary removed from the Church. We trust that God has given his Spirit to these children until and unless they demonstrate they have rejected the faith, and then we treat them as their words and actions demonstrate faith or lack thereof. How does that destroy Christian witness, or make for any worse of a situation than one where children are dedicated, but their parents do not follow through? Oh, they weren't baptized, so it's okay to abandon them as pagans? I would say that baptism, sealing them as children of God, dearly loved by him and members of his family, would impress on us all the more urgently the need to do all we can for these baptized members of God's household to raise them in the nurture and admonition of the one who sealed them with his own name.

    Such a joke as you describe could just as easily be found in churches that don’t baptize, but where families assume that all children, not matter what brats and disobedient scoundrels they might be or how rarely they take any part in church, are automatically God’s children because they had believing parents and they were dedicated, or even if they had no tie to Christ at all.

    And you can’t agree on what age they cease to be saved without faith in Christ. At what age can a disobedient child go straight to heaven without faith, and the next day he’ll go to hell because he’s now accountable? Could not such a teaching make parents complacent and not discipline their young children because there’s no such thing a sinful child? Could they not end up assuming their child is still going to heaven long after God has concluded they’re not, putting their very salvation at risk? Could this not result in the tragedy of children being allowed to grow up as pagans until it’s too late to turn them around, and destroy Christian witness because the church is full of rotten kids? I’m not suggesting that’s what your church looks like, but you sure have made an awful assumption of what mine looks like.

    3. What then to do with the children ? Instead of baptising them, dedicate them to God. Baptism is a sacrament, and to give the sacraments to people who will still be unbelievers after receiving the sacraments, is to profane the sacraments. Dedicating one’s children to God avoids this profanation. If they choose to reject their dedicated state, that is on their own heads; if they choose to live for Christ, they can become catechumens and later be baptised. This would at least lessen the number of baptised apostates and infidels, even though apostasy and infidelity within the Church would not end.
    Baptism, in our understanding, is a gift of grace of the God who is faithful even if we are not. His sacrament is not profaned if we later become unfaithful. 2 Tim. 2:11-13 “Here is a trustworthy saying: If we died with him, we will also live with him; if we endure, we will also reign with him. If we disown him, he will also disown us; if we are faithless, he will remain faithful, for he cannot disown himself.”

    So you’re saying that baptizing an innocent, pure child is to profane God’s sacrament? Based on what the child might do later? Dedicating them, to be baptized later, only avoids such profanation if they don’t reject the faith after such a delayed baptism, so the only way to avoid profaning the sacrament would be to baptize people on their deathbeds, and then off them to make sure they don’t recover and backslide.

    Tabibito: That story has been used to justify infant baptism, but the reality is it was simply implemented as a way to enforce Christianity as the State Religion of Rome under and after Constantine.
    Origen, around 250AD said “The Church received from the apostles the tradition of giving baptism even to infants.”

    Cyprian, 253 AD said, “As to what pertains to the case of infants: You [Fidus] said that they ought not to be baptized within the second or third day after their birth, that the old law of circumcision must be taken into consideration, and that you did not think that one should be baptized and sanctified within the eighth day after his birth. In our council it seemed to us far otherwise. No one agreed to the course which you thought should be taken. Rather, we all judge that the mercy and grace of God ought to be denied to no man born...If, in the case of the worst sinners and those who formerly sinned much against God, when afterwards they believe, the remission of their sins is granted and no one is held back from baptism and grace, how much more, then, should an infant not be held back, who, having but recently been born, has done no sin, except that, born of the flesh according to Adam, he has contracted the contagion of that old death from his first being born. For this very reason does he [an infant] approach more easily to receive the remission of sins: because the sins forgiven him are not his own but those of another” (ibid., 64:5).

    Both predate Constantine.

    Comment


    • Originally posted by Just Passing Through View Post
      Baptism is tied in the NT to circumcision: “In him you were also circumcised, in the putting off of the sinful nature, not with a circumcision done by the hands of men but with the circumcision done by Christ, having been buried with him in baptism and raised with him through your faith in the power of God, who raised him from the dead.” (Colossians 2:11-12)
      When you can rule out infant circumcision, I’ll admit you’ve found a good reason to rule out infant baptism. Until then, I think the burden of proof lies on one who insists that we are not to carry out Christ’s command for every soul under our care.



      And where is your clear scriptural support for denying baptism to infants? An inference from reason, that’s all it is. Excluding a segment of the population because they aren’t mentioned seems a more dangerous precedent that including them all, when Jesus told us to baptize all nations. Let the little children come to me, for the kingdom of God belongs to such as these. Not because they are somehow sinless (or disobedient but unaccountable), but because of the purity and strength and simple trust in a child’s faith. “I tell you the truth, anyone who will not receive the kingdom of God like a little child will never enter it.” Are we being told to become unaccountable like a child, or to have faith like a little child, simple childlike trust? Don’t tell me he’s telling us to become like a two-year old shouting “No” in defiant anger, because being like that is the only way to enter the kingdom of God. Don’t tell me that all children who haven’t reached the age of accountability are models of how a Christian is to behave.



      Where in the world do you get the notion that churches that baptize infants allow them to keep their church membership if they later throw over the faith they’d been baptized into? We have baptism for infants, and then a rite of confirmation, in eighth grade usually, at which time they confirm that the faith into which they were both baptized and raised is they one they promise to be faithful to for the rest of their lives, and they demonstrate their readiness to receive the Lord’s Supper and take on the responsibilities of adult membership. If they fall away before confirmation, they will never be adult members. If they fall away afterwards, they will be disciplined as Jesus instructed in Matthew 18, and if necessary removed from the Church. We trust that God has given his Spirit to these children until and unless they demonstrate they have rejected the faith, and then we treat them as their words and actions demonstrate faith or lack thereof. How does that destroy Christian witness, or make for any worse of a situation than one where children are dedicated, but their parents do not follow through? Oh, they weren't baptized, so it's okay to abandon them as pagans? I would say that baptism, sealing them as children of God, dearly loved by him and members of his family, would impress on us all the more urgently the need to do all we can for these baptized members of God's household to raise them in the nurture and admonition of the one who sealed them with his own name.

      Such a joke as you describe could just as easily be found in churches that don’t baptize, but where families assume that all children, not matter what brats and disobedient scoundrels they might be or how rarely they take any part in church, are automatically God’s children because they had believing parents and they were dedicated, or even if they had no tie to Christ at all.

      And you can’t agree on what age they cease to be saved without faith in Christ. At what age can a disobedient child go straight to heaven without faith, and the next day he’ll go to hell because he’s now accountable? Could not such a teaching make parents complacent and not discipline their young children because there’s no such thing a sinful child? Could they not end up assuming their child is still going to heaven long after God has concluded they’re not, putting their very salvation at risk? Could this not result in the tragedy of children being allowed to grow up as pagans until it’s too late to turn them around, and destroy Christian witness because the church is full of rotten kids? I’m not suggesting that’s what your church looks like, but you sure have made an awful assumption of what mine looks like.



      Baptism, in our understanding, is a gift of grace of the God who is faithful even if we are not. His sacrament is not profaned if we later become unfaithful. 2 Tim. 2:11-13 “Here is a trustworthy saying: If we died with him, we will also live with him; if we endure, we will also reign with him. If we disown him, he will also disown us; if we are faithless, he will remain faithful, for he cannot disown himself.”

      So you’re saying that baptizing an innocent, pure child is to profane God’s sacrament? Based on what the child might do later? Dedicating them, to be baptized later, only avoids such profanation if they don’t reject the faith after such a delayed baptism, so the only way to avoid profaning the sacrament would be to baptize people on their deathbeds, and then off them to make sure they don’t recover and backslide.


      Origen, around 250AD said “The Church received from the apostles the tradition of giving baptism even to infants.”

      Cyprian, 253 AD said, “As to what pertains to the case of infants: You [Fidus] said that they ought not to be baptized within the second or third day after their birth, that the old law of circumcision must be taken into consideration, and that you did not think that one should be baptized and sanctified within the eighth day after his birth. In our council it seemed to us far otherwise. No one agreed to the course which you thought should be taken. Rather, we all judge that the mercy and grace of God ought to be denied to no man born...If, in the case of the worst sinners and those who formerly sinned much against God, when afterwards they believe, the remission of their sins is granted and no one is held back from baptism and grace, how much more, then, should an infant not be held back, who, having but recently been born, has done no sin, except that, born of the flesh according to Adam, he has contracted the contagion of that old death from his first being born. For this very reason does he [an infant] approach more easily to receive the remission of sins: because the sins forgiven him are not his own but those of another” (ibid., 64:5).

      Both predate Constantine.
      For somebody who's 'just passing through', you sure can be verbose.
      The first to state his case seems right until another comes and cross-examines him.

      Comment


      • I'm like the wind. It never knows when to stop passing through, either.

        Comment


        • Originally posted by Just Passing Through View Post
          Origen, around 250AD said “The Church received from the apostles the tradition of giving baptism even to infants.”

          Cyprian, 253 AD said, “As to what pertains to the case of infants: You [Fidus] said that they ought not to be baptized within the second or third day after their birth, that the old law of circumcision must be taken into consideration, and that you did not think that one should be baptized and sanctified within the eighth day after his birth. In our council it seemed to us far otherwise. No one agreed to the course which you thought should be taken. Rather, we all judge that the mercy and grace of God ought to be denied to no man born...If, in the case of the worst sinners and those who formerly sinned much against God, when afterwards they believe, the remission of their sins is granted and no one is held back from baptism and grace, how much more, then, should an infant not be held back, who, having but recently been born, has done no sin, except that, born of the flesh according to Adam, he has contracted the contagion of that old death from his first being born. For this very reason does he [an infant] approach more easily to receive the remission of sins: because the sins forgiven him are not his own but those of another” (ibid., 64:5).

          Both predate Constantine.
          Cyprian, Epistle 58: Is good enough. One that I was not aware of.

          Didache doesn't make provision for infants - but that may be a matter of applying specifically to adults, rather than being a general procedure for baptism.

          I'm still not satisfied that infant baptism actually achieves anything.
          Last edited by tabibito; 05-27-2019, 02:57 PM.
          1Cor 15:34 Come to your senses as you ought and stop sinning; for I say to your shame, there are some who know not God.
          .
          ⊛⊛⊛⊛⊛⊛⊛⊛⊛⊛⊛⊛⊛⊛⊛⊛⊛⊛⊛⊛⊛⊛
          Scripture before Tradition:
          but that won't prevent others from
          taking it upon themselves to deprive you
          of the right to call yourself Christian.

          ⊛⊛⊛⊛⊛⊛⊛⊛⊛⊛⊛⊛⊛⊛⊛⊛⊛⊛⊛⊛⊛

          Comment


          • Originally posted by Just Passing Through View Post
            And where is your clear scriptural support for denying baptism to infants? An inference from reason, that’s all it is. Excluding a segment of the population because they aren’t mentioned seems a more dangerous precedent that including them all, when Jesus told us to baptize all nations.
            Actually, he told us to make disciples of them - baptism follows.

            Let the little children come to me, for the kingdom of God belongs to such as these.
            The people were bringing little children to Jesus for Him to bless them, not to baptize them.

            JPT - you gots a WHOLE LOT of supposition and assumptions going on in this little screed.
            The first to state his case seems right until another comes and cross-examines him.

            Comment


            • Originally posted by Just Passing Through View Post
              I'm like the wind. It never knows when to stop passing through, either.
              And often leaves an unmitigated mess -sometimes even death and destruction - in its path?
              The first to state his case seems right until another comes and cross-examines him.

              Comment


              • Actually, he told us to make disciples of them - baptism follows.
                “Make disciples” is the command, followed by two participles telling us how to make disciples, by baptizing and by teaching. Baptism comes first. It’s the first way you make disciples.

                Let the little children come to me, for the kingdom of God belongs to such as these.
                The people were bringing little children to Jesus for Him to bless them, not to baptize them.
                I cited that only as an encouragement to let Jesus bless them, and baptism is the ideal way to let him do that. If I was going for verbosity, I would have gone on, both about the use of brephe here (not just little children, but infants), and the passage that describes one who causes one of these little ones who believe in me to sin, both demonstrating that they can have faith and they can sin (and the sin is not just a slip-up, but a skandalon, a downfall from the faith).

                JPT - you gots a WHOLE LOT of supposition and assumptions going on in this little screed.
                Imagine how verbose I would have been if I’d taken the time to explain my reasons for all those suppositions and assumptions.

                Comment


                • The main sticking points in my opinion have always been
                  repent and be baptised - how does an infant repent? That presupposes an informed, volitional response.

                  call on the name of the Lord - how does an infant call on the name of the Lord? That takes cognition and oral vocabulary.

                  Talk of the baptism of everyone in a household involves presupposition that
                  infants were present (no evidence advanced in support of their presence)

                  and
                  that infants, if present, would have been counted as members of a household.
                  (some evidence has been advanced supporting the idea that they weren't - though it is not overly compelling.)
                  Last edited by tabibito; 05-27-2019, 03:17 PM.
                  1Cor 15:34 Come to your senses as you ought and stop sinning; for I say to your shame, there are some who know not God.
                  .
                  ⊛⊛⊛⊛⊛⊛⊛⊛⊛⊛⊛⊛⊛⊛⊛⊛⊛⊛⊛⊛⊛⊛
                  Scripture before Tradition:
                  but that won't prevent others from
                  taking it upon themselves to deprive you
                  of the right to call yourself Christian.

                  ⊛⊛⊛⊛⊛⊛⊛⊛⊛⊛⊛⊛⊛⊛⊛⊛⊛⊛⊛⊛⊛

                  Comment


                  • Originally posted by Just Passing Through View Post
                    “Make disciples” is the command, followed by two participles telling us how to make disciples, by baptizing and by teaching. Baptism comes first. It’s the first way you make disciples.
                    So, you're WAY smarter than the hundreds of translations that are out there that didn't figure that out.

                    JPT - I'm sure you're a good guy - but you have that "air" about you that, once you decide something "is", you'll jump through any hoops and hurdles necessary to 'prove it'.

                    As you were, sir!
                    The first to state his case seems right until another comes and cross-examines him.

                    Comment


                    • Checking: Teaching is part of the process of making disciples, so I'll accept JPT's assessment on that score.

                      But not the claim that the "little ones" who believe could be infants.
                      With σκανδαλιζω being the subjunctive, active -
                      that would be "should sin against" one of the small ones - given that ενα is accusative
                      neither passage (Mark 9:42, Matthew 18:6) claims that the little ones sin
                      both passages claim that the little ones believe (or perhaps, trust).
                      Last edited by tabibito; 05-27-2019, 04:22 PM.
                      1Cor 15:34 Come to your senses as you ought and stop sinning; for I say to your shame, there are some who know not God.
                      .
                      ⊛⊛⊛⊛⊛⊛⊛⊛⊛⊛⊛⊛⊛⊛⊛⊛⊛⊛⊛⊛⊛⊛
                      Scripture before Tradition:
                      but that won't prevent others from
                      taking it upon themselves to deprive you
                      of the right to call yourself Christian.

                      ⊛⊛⊛⊛⊛⊛⊛⊛⊛⊛⊛⊛⊛⊛⊛⊛⊛⊛⊛⊛⊛

                      Comment


                      • If the apostles really did teach it, then, I'd like to know why because it may be that we are missing a piece of what they intended baptism to be.
                        "I am not angered that the Moral Majority boys campaign against abortion. I am angry when the same men who say, "Save OUR children" bellow "Build more and bigger bombers." That's right! Blast the children in other nations into eternity, or limbless misery as they lay crippled from "OUR" bombers! This does not jell." - Leonard Ravenhill

                        Comment


                        • Originally posted by tabibito View Post
                          Checking: Teaching is part of the process of making disciples, so I'll accept JPT's assessment on that score.

                          But not the claim that the "little ones" who believe could be infants.
                          With σκανδαλιζω being the subjunctive, active -
                          that would be "should sin against" one of the small ones - given that ενα is accusative
                          neither passage (Mark 9:42, Matthew 18:6) claims that the little ones sin
                          both passages claim that the little ones believe (or perhaps, trust).
                          Equating NT Baptism with OT Circumcision is also problematic as a proof for infant baptism, since only male infants were circumcised. Should only male infants be baptized?
                          The first to state his case seems right until another comes and cross-examines him.

                          Comment


                          • Originally posted by Rushing Jaws View Post
                            The advantage BB has over IB is that:

                            1. Adult baptism is the only kind with clear NT support - the defence of IB that argues from the mention of the Philippian gaoler’s “household” in Acts 16, is based on an inference from reason, and posits infants in his household for whose existence there is no evidence; the argument is an exercise in wishful thinking;
                            The problem I have with that argument is this: It is true there is no explicit description of infant baptism in the New Testament (the household baptisms could have included them, but that is nothing more than a possibility). However, there is no explicit description of what logically should follow the idea of believers' baptism: The baptism of someone once they reach the necessary age for believers' baptism to count. That is never described. Nor is there any statement not to baptize infants.

                            I feel when it comes to believers' baptism vs. infant baptism, the New Testament is, pun intended, a wash.

                            Unfortunately, the historical record is ambiguous regarding it for a while from either a positive or negative viewpoint. We know for sure that from the mid third century onward, infant baptism was normative (as shown by Origen and Cyprian's writings and pretty much everything that followed). Tertullian around the year 200 A.D. expresses skepticism of it but nevertheless implies it was commonplace even then.

                            But in the intervening period after the apostolic age and Tertullian, we don't have anything for or against the practice outside of some very ambiguous remarks. The Didache doesn't mention it, but it's also a catechism for converts, so it would have no reason to. Polycarp's attestation that he served God for "eighty and six years" implies he was baptized as an infant, though it is possible, albeit unlikely, that he lived so long that he was baptized later in life--though still presumably at a relatively young age--and then lived for 86 years more. Justin Martyr also likens baptism to circumcision and elsewhere describes some people as having been Christ's disciple since childhood--but again, these are ambiguous statements.

                            Originally posted by Cow Poke View Post
                            Equating NT Baptism with OT Circumcision is also problematic as a proof for infant baptism, since only male infants were circumcised. Should only male infants be baptized?
                            The problem I have with this argument is that the reason only male infants were circumcised--namely, biological differences--does not apply to baptism.

                            Comment


                            • Originally posted by Cow Poke View Post
                              Equating NT Baptism with OT Circumcision is also problematic as a proof for infant baptism, since only male infants were circumcised. Should only male infants be baptized?
                              That would be a valid objection, if it were not for this passage by Paul:

                              Scripture Verse: Galatians 3:23-28


                              23 Now before faith came, we were held captive under the law, imprisoned until the coming faith would be revealed. 24 So then, the law was our guardian until Christ came, in order that we might be justified by faith. 25 But now that faith has come, we are no longer under a guardian, 26 for in Christ Jesus you are all sons of God, through faith. 27 For as many of you as were baptized into Christ have put on Christ. 28 There is neither Jew nor Greek, there is neither slave nor free, there is no male and female, for you are all one in Christ Jesus.

                              © Copyright Original Source



                              In other words, Paul here removes any distinction between male and female when it comes to the benefits of the faith. So if baptism is meant to be analogous to circumcision for Christians, then the fact that only male infants were circumcised cannot be used to object to the comparison, since Paul made away with that distinction.

                              Comment


                              • Originally posted by tabibito View Post
                                It seems that Swedish can't deal with the Koine Greek grammar directly in this passage - but better than English grammar can. However, the Swedish translators have done a VERY good job of preserving the meaning.

                                I think the Swedish words are in the right places below: they're related to the English words (near as I can tell). The English words translate the Koine Greek.

                                [ATTACH=CONFIG]37257[/ATTACH]
                                I think you got it mostly correct. If "o" and "this" refers to "anti-typal" then "denna" should be put there as well. "Efter denna förebild" would translate to something like After* this antitype**", with all of the words having roughly the same meaning in both sentences. I.e

                                efter = after,
                                denna = this,
                                förebild = antitype


                                * or according to
                                ** You wouldn't normally translate förebild as antitype, but in this context, when it refers specifically to the greek word antitupon, I think it's ok.

                                Originally posted by tabibito View Post
                                After that comes an explanation of how baptism actually achieves “save.” Hint: it isn’t by cleaning the skin.


                                Is “er” accusative?
                                In this context, yes. But "er" can function as an accusative, dative and genitive (and I'm probably forgetting some ways you can use it), so just seeing the word "er" is not in itself enough to say that it functions as an accusative.

                                But in this case your guess that it functions as an accusative is indeed correct.


                                Originally posted by tabibito View Post
                                “that” from “o” top line, 6th word: reflexive pronoun, nominative, singular – which is to say “the aforementioned water.”
                                Would that "o" refer also to "antitype", or does it refer only to "water"?

                                Originally posted by tabibito View Post
                                Could (if slightly indirectly) “förebild” be translated as paradigm?
                                Not usually, but I can think of a few cases where it might be fitting to translate it that way.

                                Originally posted by tabibito View Post
                                “anti-typal” adjective, nominative (pour plaster into a mould – the mould is the type, the plaster shape that comes out is the antitype.)
                                “baptism” noun, nominative
                                that (standing for “water”) + anti-typal + baptism form a single compound noun (and grammatical subject)

                                Comment

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