Hi, sorry if I'm posting in the wrong section... I wasn't sure if it was ok to post here or to Christianity 201. Also, apologies if this is a long post!
I'm looking at Hebrews 11:17 (ESV), "By faith Abraham, when he was tested, offered up Isaac, and he who had received the promises was in the act of offering up his only son[.]"
My questions relate to "by faith" translated from pistei and parsed as noun, dative, feminine, singular. The line I'm looking at is:
Pistei prosenenochen Abraam ton Isaak.
My thoughts: Abraham is the nominative of the phrase/sentence. "has offered up" (prosenenochen) is the verb by which Abraham acts toward the direct object of Isaac.
1) Would this make "by faith" the indirect object?
2) Because it is dative, would this particular usage be "dative of means/instrument" (by means of faith)? I don't see anything else before and after verse 17 that could indicate a different "means" or a "wielder (of the means)". Perhaps I'm missing something? But I'm thinking that if it is the indirect object, then it is essentially stand-alone.
3) I am also a bit confused by the gender (feminine). Why is it feminine? Is it similar to how Wisdom is feminine in the Proverbs? Or cars are addressed in the feminine in English?
The context: the reason why I'm looking at this is because I originally thought that "by faith" is from God (Greek grammar-wise). I already know that the lexicon, when drilled down to the root of the word, suggests two types of faith: human and divine given. But when I looked at the parsing, it doesn't appear to say either way. Hence my questions above, trying to figure out if "by faith" is just the indirect object with no other hints/clues as to where this faith comes from (whether by human means or from God).
My other thoughts of where this faith comes from was to look at Genesis 22 and reading it side-by-side with Hebrews 11. From Genesis 22, I see three verses of significance: verses 5, 8, and 12.
5: Abraham knew that he would return with Isaac.
8: Abraham knew that God would provide the lamb offering.
The two verses above coincide with what Hebrews 11:17-19. That is, Abraham knew that even if Isaac died, God would raise him from the dead (v 19). He knew that God could do this because God gave Abraham Isaac even though at the time, he was 100 years old and Sarah was 90 years old. Sarah and Abraham both laughed at the notion that this could happen because of their old age (Genesis 17:15-17; 21:1-7; 18:9-14). But the impossible miracle happened nonetheless. God's other promise to Abraham is that through Isaac, Abraham's descendants would be innumerable as the stars in the sky (Genesis 15:1-6; 17:19-21). God had not yet fulfilled this promise but he did fulfill Isaac's birth and at the predicted time. And this is why Abraham had his "faith". God gave him divine knowledge and the evidence to backup those claims (the impossible miracle of Isaac's birth). Therefore, Abraham's faith came from God.
12: Abraham feared God.
The theme of the 'fear of the Lord' is mentioned many times throughout Scripture. I'm thinking that this has significance to Exodus 20:20 where Moses says, "Moses said to the people, 'Do not fear, for God has come to test you, that the fear of him may be before you, that you may not sin.'" I think I was able to figure out the latter part, "that the fear of him may be before you, that you may not sin." The former part, "Do not fear, for God has come to test you," I think can be interpreted with help from Genesis 22:12.
fear of the Lord -> testing of faith -> true faith comes from God -> no need to fear (because the test will be passed since true faith comes from God) -> obedience to God's commands
I don't know if I'm making sense! Hoping someone could give their two cents.
Edit: clarified the Abraham/promise fulfillment paragraph.
I'm looking at Hebrews 11:17 (ESV), "By faith Abraham, when he was tested, offered up Isaac, and he who had received the promises was in the act of offering up his only son[.]"
My questions relate to "by faith" translated from pistei and parsed as noun, dative, feminine, singular. The line I'm looking at is:
Pistei prosenenochen Abraam ton Isaak.
My thoughts: Abraham is the nominative of the phrase/sentence. "has offered up" (prosenenochen) is the verb by which Abraham acts toward the direct object of Isaac.
1) Would this make "by faith" the indirect object?
2) Because it is dative, would this particular usage be "dative of means/instrument" (by means of faith)? I don't see anything else before and after verse 17 that could indicate a different "means" or a "wielder (of the means)". Perhaps I'm missing something? But I'm thinking that if it is the indirect object, then it is essentially stand-alone.
3) I am also a bit confused by the gender (feminine). Why is it feminine? Is it similar to how Wisdom is feminine in the Proverbs? Or cars are addressed in the feminine in English?
The context: the reason why I'm looking at this is because I originally thought that "by faith" is from God (Greek grammar-wise). I already know that the lexicon, when drilled down to the root of the word, suggests two types of faith: human and divine given. But when I looked at the parsing, it doesn't appear to say either way. Hence my questions above, trying to figure out if "by faith" is just the indirect object with no other hints/clues as to where this faith comes from (whether by human means or from God).
My other thoughts of where this faith comes from was to look at Genesis 22 and reading it side-by-side with Hebrews 11. From Genesis 22, I see three verses of significance: verses 5, 8, and 12.
5: Abraham knew that he would return with Isaac.
8: Abraham knew that God would provide the lamb offering.
The two verses above coincide with what Hebrews 11:17-19. That is, Abraham knew that even if Isaac died, God would raise him from the dead (v 19). He knew that God could do this because God gave Abraham Isaac even though at the time, he was 100 years old and Sarah was 90 years old. Sarah and Abraham both laughed at the notion that this could happen because of their old age (Genesis 17:15-17; 21:1-7; 18:9-14). But the impossible miracle happened nonetheless. God's other promise to Abraham is that through Isaac, Abraham's descendants would be innumerable as the stars in the sky (Genesis 15:1-6; 17:19-21). God had not yet fulfilled this promise but he did fulfill Isaac's birth and at the predicted time. And this is why Abraham had his "faith". God gave him divine knowledge and the evidence to backup those claims (the impossible miracle of Isaac's birth). Therefore, Abraham's faith came from God.
12: Abraham feared God.
The theme of the 'fear of the Lord' is mentioned many times throughout Scripture. I'm thinking that this has significance to Exodus 20:20 where Moses says, "Moses said to the people, 'Do not fear, for God has come to test you, that the fear of him may be before you, that you may not sin.'" I think I was able to figure out the latter part, "that the fear of him may be before you, that you may not sin." The former part, "Do not fear, for God has come to test you," I think can be interpreted with help from Genesis 22:12.
fear of the Lord -> testing of faith -> true faith comes from God -> no need to fear (because the test will be passed since true faith comes from God) -> obedience to God's commands
I don't know if I'm making sense! Hoping someone could give their two cents.
Edit: clarified the Abraham/promise fulfillment paragraph.
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