Let's look at two examples Pete provides:
1) Romans 10:4-13 citing Lev. 18:5/Deut. 30:11-14
Peter Enns makes the following observation: To support his claim that Christ is the “end” (better “culmination” or “completion”) of the law, Paul pits two passages from Torah against each other. Leviticus 18:5, which speaks of obedience to Torah, is a “righteousness that comes from the law.” But the “righteousness that comes by faith” is about Christ, which Paul sees in Deuteronomy 30:11-14 (Romans 10:4-13). The problem is that the passage in Deuteronomy is about as strong a language as one can find about the dire consequences for not keeping the Law of Moses. Indeed, the commands that God is giving to the Israelite's are doable. They are not out of anyone’s reach. They are not up in the heavens or somewhere across the ocean. They are right here–“in your mouth and in your heart so you may obey it.” Paul bypasses the clear meaning of that text—Torah obedience—in favor of a creative Christ-centered reading that marginalizes Torah obedience.
2) Rom. 11: 26-27 citing Isa. 59:20-21
Peter Enns makes the following observation: In Romans 11:26-27, Paul cites Isaiah 59:20-21 but changes one crucial word to allow him to make his theological point. In context, Isaiah speaks of God (the Deliverer) coming to Zion (Israel) to deliver them from Babylonian captivity. Paul, however, uses this passage to speak of a different kind of deliverance that will come not to Zion but out of Zion—meaning (I think) that the deliverance of both Jews and Gentiles originates with a Jewish Jesus.
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Of course Peter Enns' approach isn't the only view out there.
So, what are your thoughts on the NT author's appropriation of OT texts?
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